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SSC Commercial Audit (English) Solved paper 2009

(Held On 14–6–2009)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by choosing the appropriate alternative.
1. That which would burn easily.
(A) Incendiary
(B) Incantatory
(C) Inflammable
(D) Incandescent
Ans : (C)
2. Place of gathering for public discussion.
(A) Platform
(B) Dias
(C) Stage
(D) Forum
Ans : (D)
3. An addition to the end of a letter.
(A) Post script
(B) Prelude
(C) Post natal
(D) Post mortem
Ans : (A)
4. Young cow that has not yet had a calf.
(A) Cowlet
(B) Colt
(C) Ewe
(D) Heifer
Ans : (D)
5. A mournful song (or poem) for the dead.
(A) Ballad
(B) Dirge
(C) Ode
(D) Lyric
Ans : (B)
6. The dead skin cast off by a snake.
(A) Bough
(B) Slough
(C) Peeling
(D) Borough
Ans : (B)
7. Science dealing with bird life.
(A) Zymology
(B) Ornithology
(C) Etymology
(D) Philology
Ans : (B)
8. One who is from 60 to 69 years old.
(A) Sexton
(B) Sexologist
(C) Sexagenarian
(D) Sextuplet
Ans : (C)
9. Someone who keeps bees.
(A) Apiarist
(B) Horticulturist
(C) Ornithologist
(D) Pathologist
Ans : (A)
10. Speaking one’s thoughts aloud to oneself.
(A) Apostrophise
(B) Memorise
(C) Soliloquize
(D) Solemnise
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is wrongly spelt. Find the misspelt word and indicate your correct response.
11. (A) Unaccompanied
(B) Unaccustomed
(C) Unadopted
(D) Unaloyed
Ans : (D)
12. (A) Boutique
(B) Physique
(C) Opaque
(D) Obleeque
Ans : (D)
13. (A) Admitting
(B) Budgetting
(C) Preferring
(D) Travelling
Ans : (B)
14. (A) Torpedoes
(B) Mosquitoes
(C) Pianoes
(D) Tomatoes
Ans : (C)
15. (A) Malignity
(B) Malodorus
(C) Malfeasance
(D) Malevolent
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which BEST EXPRESSES the meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate your correct alternative.
16. When the boy was put into a boarding school, he quickly fell into line without his usual tantrums and indisciplined behaviour.
(A) stood in a line
(B) turned straight
(C) failed to behave properly
(D) became orderly
Ans : (D)
17. By his virtuous life, he has made amends for his past actions.
(A) repented for
(B) compensated for
(C) forgotten about
(D) suffered for
Ans : (A)
18. He read for the bar.
(A) studied to become a barrister
(B) studied to become a barman
(C) studied to become a judge
(D) studied to become a courtier
Ans : (A)
19. In the field of social service, the Parsis bear the palm.
(A) are the leaders
(B) are the donors
(C) are pre-eminent
(D) are reformers
Ans : (C)
20. He is always trying to curry favour with his boss and does not even maintain his selfrespect.
(A) get obligation from
(B) pick up quarrel with
(C) flatter
(D) take undue advantage from
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 21–30) In the following questions, a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (A), (B) and (C), which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D) and indicate your correct response.
21. How are you going to have your car painted?
I am going to have it red painted.
(A) paint it red
(B) have it painted red
(C) paint red
(D) No improvement
Ans : (B)
22. He is one who gives money or helps others who has been instrumental in the upliftment of many poverty stricken people.
(A) a philosopher
(B) a philatelist
(C) a philanthropist
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
23. The job wasn’t interesting, but on the contrary it was wellpaid.
(A) on the whole
(B) on the other side
(C) on the other hand
(D) No improvement
Ans : (A)
24. When those whom he had injured accused him of being a charlatan, he retorted curtly that he had never been a quack.
(A) libertine
(B) sycophant
(C) plagiarist
(D) No improvement
Ans : (D)
25. The postman comes twice a day, don’t he ?
(A) doesn’t he
(B) does he
(C) do he
(D) No improvement
Ans : (A)
26. My boy-friend won me at tennis.
(A) succeeded me
(B) outran me
(C) beat me
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
27. It was mere affection that stopped him from beating his son.
(A) great
(B) much
(C) filial
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
28. The British superiority all over Africa and Asia collapsed in the first half of the twentieth century.
(A) domicile
(B) residence
(C) dominion
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
29. Did you finish the work yet ?
(A) Had you finished
(B) Haven’t you finished
(C) Would you finish
(D) No improvement
Ans : (B)
30. I’ll tell you as soon as I’ll know.
(A) I would know
(B) I can know
(C) I know
(D) No improvement
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive Voice/Active Voice and indicate your correct alterntive.
31. This train carries goods from Delhi to Bombay.
(A) This train is carried by goods from Delhi to Bombay.
(B) The goods carry this train from Delhi to Bombay.
(C) Goods are carried by this train from Delhi to Bombay.
(D) The train carried the goods from Delhi to Bombay.
Ans : (C)
32. The news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections surprised him.
(A) He was surprised by the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
(B) He was surprised with the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
(C) He was surprised as a result of the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
(D) He was surprised at the news of the success of a poor candidate in the elections.
Ans : (D)
33. Finish the work in time.
(A) Let the work be finished in time.
(B) Let the work be finished in time by us.
(C) Let the work be finished by him in time.
(D) Let me finish the work in time.
Ans : (A)
34. God helps those who help themselves.
(A) Those who help themselves must be helped by God.
(B) Those who help themselves are helped by God.
(C) Let those who help themselves are helped by God.
(D) Let those who help themselves be helped by God.
Ans : (B)
35. Can you recite this poem ?
(A) This poem can be recited by you.
(B) You are requested to recite this poem.
(C) Would this poem be recited by you ?
(D) Can this poem be recited by you ?
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) In the following questions first and the last parts of the sentence passage are following questions, numbered (1) and (6). The rest of the sentence/ passage is split into four parts and named (P), (Q), (R) and (S). These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence/ passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct and indicate your correct alternative.
36. 1. For thousands of millions of years the Moon has been going round the Earth.
P. However, some of them will still be going round the Earth thousands of years from now.
Q. These artificial satellites are very much smaller than the Moon.
R. Today, however, the Earth has many other satellites, all made by man.
S. During this time, the Moon has been the only satellite of the Earth.
6. Artificial satellites do not fall because they are going too fast to do so.
(A) P R S Q
(B) Q S R P
(C) S R P Q
(D) S R Q P
Ans : (D)
37. 1. Sir Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay were the first to reach the peak of Mount Everest in 1953.
P. While a Nepalese and a Japanese climber have done it three times, the Italian climber Reinhold Messner
has done it twice.
Q. Some 164 men and women mountaineers from 21 nations have made the ascent.
R. The mountain still continues to enthral.
S. Since then, there has been a succession of climbs.
6. Those wanting to climb Everest must file an application, with the Nepal Tourism Ministry.
(A) P Q R S
(B) S R Q P
(C) S Q P R
(D) S P R Q
Ans : (C)
38. 1. There is a lot of luck in drilling for oil.
P. The samples of soil are examined for traces of oil.
Q. The drill may just miss the oil although it is near.
R. Sometimes, it may strike oil at a fairly high level.
S. When the drill goes down it brings up soil.
6. If they are disappointed at one place, the drillers go to another.
(A) Q P R S
(B) Q R S P
(C) P S R Q
(D) S R Q P
Ans : (C)
39. 1. India is a very old country with a great past.
P. Since August 1947, she had been in a position to pursue her own foreign policy.
Q. But it is a new country also, with new urges and new desires.
R. But even so, she could not forget the lesson of her great leader.
S. She was limited by the realities of the situation which she could not ignore or overcome.
6. She tried to adapt theory to reality.
(A) P Q R S
(B) Q P S R
(C) S R P Q
(D) R S P Q
Ans : (B)
40. 1. Of all the living creatures on the earth, insects are the most plentiful.
P. In some countries, they are farmers greatest enemy.
Q. Locusts are perhaps the most dangerous of all, for they will eat almost any green plant and leave cultivated lands bare.
R. Some varieties are very useful to man, like bees from which we get honey and wax, and silkworms which supply us with silk.
S. Other varieties, however, are extremely harmful and do a great amount of damage, especially to crops.
6. Common flies, cockroaches, termites, mosquitoes and lice are some other insects harmful to man.
(A) P S R Q
(B) S R P Q
(C) R S Q P
(D) Q S R P
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and indicate corresponding to the appropriate letter (A), (B) or (C). If there is no error, indicate corresponding to the letter (D).
41. Honesty always has and (A) / will always be (B) / a great virtue. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
42. It was irony (A) / that while he was trying to help his neighbours (B) / his own house was burnt to the ground. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
43. If we can work (A) / slow and steady (B) / we can finish by noon. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
44. Besides his children (A) / there were present (B) / his nephews and nieces. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
45. How do you manage to speak (A) / to her with (B) / so great patience. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
46. He not only cheated (A) / his friends, (B) / but also his parents. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
47. By this time next year (A) / Ramesh will take (B) / his university degree. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
48. I slept (A) / rather late (B) / last night. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
49. If I saved some money every month (A) / I would be able to buy a vehicle of my choice (B) / in no time. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
50. When I read his book (A) / I implied from it (B) / that he never understood women. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 51–55) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which BEST EXPRESSES the meaning of the given bold word in CAPITAL LETTERS and indicate your correct alternative.
51. IMPAIR
(A) Weaken
(B) Couple
(C) Double
(D) Repair
Ans : (A)
52. MOROSE
(A) Genial
(B) Gentle
(C) Gloomy
(D) Idle
Ans : (C)
53. INUNDATION
(A) Drought
(B) Imposition
(C) Flood
(D) Snowfall
Ans : (C)
54. PRISTINE
(A) Novel
(B) Strange
(C) Contemporary
(D) Original
Ans : (D)
55. EFFIGY
(A) Proxy
(B) Duplicate
(C) Dummy
(D) Replica
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 56–60) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one OPPOSITE in meaning to the given bold word in CAPITAL LETTERS and indicate your correct alternative.
56. AMELIORATE
(A) Decay
(B) Decline
(C) Worsen
(D) Destroy
Ans : (C)
57. VINDICTIVE
(A) Careless
(B) Forgiving
(C) Heedless
(D) Refined
Ans : (B)
58. CAMARADERIE
(A) Curiosity
(B) Ferocity
(C) Impetuosity
(D) Animosity
Ans : (D)
59. DEVOUR
(A) Vomit
(B) Reject
(C) Emit
(D) Eject
Ans : (A)
60. FALLIBLE
(A) Virtuous
(B) Honest
(C) Perfect
(D) Humble
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 61–70) In these questions, in the following passage, some of the words have been left out and the blanks have been numbered from 61 to 70. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Indicate your correct alternative.
The inevitable effect of mechanical production is uniformity, and although uniformity may lead to monotony, it need not lack beauty. In fact, modern improvement in popular …(61)… is mainly the result of better design …(62)… standardised, goods; and the average …(63)… is buying better design goods, because those goods are …(64)…, because the problem of taste has been …(65)… for him. Good taste is not always …(66)… and most people manage to get …(67)… without it. It is fortunate therefore, that so many of the …(68)… of life are now chosen for us by …(69)…. Even among luxuries, the margin for …(70)… taste is constantly being reduced.
61. (A) craft
(B) technology
(C) ideas
(D) taste
Ans : (D)
62. (A) on
(B) of
(C) in
(D) for
Ans : (B)
63. (A) shopper
(B) client
(C) man
(D) businessman
Ans : (A)
64. (A) gaudy
(B) accessible
(C) reliable
(D) durable
Ans : (A)
65. (A) tackled
(B) simplified
(C) resolved
(D) solved
Ans : (C)
66. (A) genuine
(B) laboured
(C) impulsive
(D) inborn
Ans : (D)
67. (A) ahead
(B) along
(C) through
(D) around
Ans : (C)
68. (A) amenities
(B) comforts
(C) luxuries
(D) necessities
Ans : (A)
69. (A) connoisseurs
(B) artists
(C) experts
(D) scientists
Ans : (A)
70. (A) local
(B) particular
(C) impersonal
(D) personal
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 71–75) In the following questions, you have a brief passage with five questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and indicate your correct alternative.
Comprehension Passage
No one can seriously pretend to remain unaffected by advertisements. it is impossible to turn a blind eye to the solicitous overtures to buy this or that article that fill our streets, newspapers and magazines. Even in the sanctity of our living rooms, advertisers are waiting to pounce on their helpless victims as they tune into their favourite radio or television programmes. In time, no matter how hard we resist, clever little tunes and
catch-phrases seep into our subconscious minds and stay there. Though they seem so varied, all these advertisements have one thing in common; they make strong appeals to our emotions.
71. The word ‘sanctity’ means—
(A) sacredness
(B) privacy
(C) privilege
(D) security
Ans : (B)
72. Which one of the following lines best expresses the meaning of the first sentence in the passage ?
(A) All men are influenced by advertisements
(B) Most men are influenced by advertisements
(C) Some men are not influenced by advertisements
(D) Advertisements cannot influence everybody
Ans : (A)
73. To turn a blind eye — its opposite meaning is to—
(A) perceive
(B) view
(C) visualise
(D) sight
Ans : (A)
74. The ‘helpless victims’ are the—
(A) public
(B) spectators
(C) audience
(D) sellers
Ans : (A)
75. Advertisements are successful when we respond to them—
(A) Intellectually
(B) Blindly
(C) Helplessly
(D) Emotionally
Ans : (D)

KPSC DEPUTY COLLECTOR Solved Paper 2011

Examination-april-201

1. Name of the Egyptian President against whom people of Egypt revolted in 2011:
A. Hosni Mubarak B. Pervez Musharra C. Omar Suleiman D. Ahmed Shafeeque
Answer: A
2. Name the person who commissioned theVallarpadam International Container Transshipment
Terminal A. Vayalar Ravi B. Dr. Man Mohan Singh C. A. K. Antony D. G K Vasan
Answer: B
3. The Malayalam literature who received Jnan pith Award in 2007 :
A. Sugatha Kumari B. Vijayalakshmi C. O.N.V Kurup D. Balachandran Chullikkad
Answer: C
4. In which of the following cities was the Indian Biodiversity Congress(2010) held?
A. Chennai B. Chandigarh C. Mumbai D. Thiruvananthapuram
Answer: D
5. ___sector has established itself as the biggest contributor to the State’s GDP as per
Kerala State’s Economic Review ( February 2011)
A. Secondary Sector B. Primary Sector C. Tertiary Sector D. None of these
Answer:C
6. Name the most significant characteristic of National Integration:
A. Social homogeneity B. Unity C. Economic identity D. National loyalty
Answer:B
7. “The principle of respect for all life and the practice of non-injury to living thing’s is known in India as :
A. Ahimsa B. Tolerance C. Patience D. None of These
Answer: A
8. NCW means :
A. National Commission For Women B. National Commission For Workers
C. National Council For Workers D. None of these
Answer: A
9.The Servants of India Society (1905) was formed to train people to serve the country by
A. Tilak B. Gandhiji C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy D. Gopalakrishna Gokhale
Answer:D
10. Who is popularly called “Vaikkom Hero” ?
A. R. K. Dhadabai B. E V Ramaswami C. C.N. Annadurai D. Mannath Padmanabhan
Answer:D

11. Who founded the Indian National Congress?
A. Motilal Nehru B. A.O. Hume C. Lajpat Rai D. Gokhale
Answer:B
12. Zionisn is a world movement of :
A. Hindus B. Buddhists C. Christians D. Jews
Answer:D
13. Jallianwalla agh is situated in :
A. Delhi B. Mysore C. Amritsar D. Lahore
Answer:C
14. The first war of Indian independendance started at :
A. Mumbai B. Chennai C. Delhi D. Meerut
Answer:D
15. “Life Divine” was written by :
A. Gandhiji B. Tilak C. Vivekananda D. Aurobindo Ghosh
Answer:D
16. Name the “Land of the Morning Calm” :
A. Norway B. Japan C. Korea D. Thailand
Answer:C
17. Sahyadri ranges refer to :
A. Eastern ghats B. Western ghats C. Saptura ranges D. Siwaliks
Answer:B
18. The line beyond which snow never melts is
A. Latitude B. Longitude C. Snow line D. Meridian
Answer:C
19. Gir Forest is in :
A. Karnataka B. Bihar C. Gujarat D. Himachal Pradesh
Answer:C
20. A fountain of hot water issuing from a hole which extends deep into earth’s crust is called :
A. Delta B. Canyon C. Volcano D. Geyser
Answer:C

21. Universal Adult Franchise creates :

A. economic equality B. social equality C. political equality D. cultural equality

Answer:C

22. Who is the guardian of Fundamental rights in India ?
A. Judiciary B. Legislature C. Executive D. Political parties
Answer:A
23 The year in which Panchayati Raj was introduced in India :
A.1960 B.1959 C. 1961 D. 1949
Answer:B
24. Which article of the constitution provides for the formation of the Finance Commission ?
A. Article 300 B. Article 280 C. Article 250 D. Article 290
Answer:B
25. The Gevernor can nominate to the Legislative Council of his state one member from this
community :
A. Jewish B. Muslim C. Anglo-Indian D. Parsi
Answer:C
26. Right to Information Act (RTI) became effective in India on 15th June :
A. 2001 B. 2003 C.2004 D.2005
Answer:D
27. Universal Declaration of human rights was passed by the U.N. General Assembly on :
A. 10.12.1948 B. 13.11.1947 C. 9.12.1948 D. 12.12.1946
Answer:A
28. The proclamation of emergency brings automatic suspension of the right to :
A. Freedom speech B. Constitutional remedies C. Freedom of religion C. All of these
Answer:A
29. The concept of Fundamental right has it’s basis in the :
A. Constitution of the USA B. Constitution of Russia C. Irish Constitution D. Canadian
Constitution
Answer:A
30. The chairman of the UPSC is appointed by the :
A. Cabinet B. President C. Supreme Court D. Prime Minister
Answer:B

Kerala PSC LD Clerk 2011 Exam syllabus

LDC 2011 Syllabus
Kerala PSC LD Clerk 2011 Exam syllabus

Part 1 – General Knowledge

* Social Science
* Science
* Biology
* Chemistry
* Computer
* Environmental Science
* Kerala History
* Indian History
* World History
* Economics
* Constitution
* Geography
* Basic facts related to Kerala
* Basic facts related to India
* Basic facts related to World
* Current affairs
* Sports
* Arts and Literature
* World religions
* Books and Authors
* Inventions

Part 2 – General English

* Vocabulary
* Grammar
* Sentence Structure
* Synonyms
* Antonyms
* Questions On Comprehension Of A Passage.

Part 3 – Mental Ability and simple arithmetic

* Questions on analogies
* Similarities And Differences
* Space Visualization
* Problem-Solving
* Analysis
* Judgement
* Decision-Making
* Visual Memory
* Discrimination
* Observation,
* Relationship Concepts
* Arithmetical Reasoning
* Verbal And Figure Classification
* Arithmetical Number Series
* Non-Verbal Series
* Arithmetical Computation Of Whole Numbers,
* Decimals
* Fractions
* Relationship Between Numbers.

KPSC Divisional Accountant Solved Paper II 2002

Part 2

1) India’s National Song was derived from a famous book entitled

A – Agni Vina
B – Bharat Bharti
C – Geet Govindam
D – Anand Math

2) The City of Seven Hills is

A – Chicago
B – Berlin
C – Rome
D – Vienna

3) “Moorlands” are

A – Marine vegetation near Sundarbans
B – The area of Marshy lands
C – The regions where evergreen trees flourish
D – Areas where twisted shrubs and grasses grow

4) The difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is

A – Fundamental Rights are justifiable while Directive Principles are not
B – Fundamental Rights are positive while directive Principles are negative.
C – Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are justifiable
D – Directive Principles are given precedence over Fundamental Rights

5) The structure of the Indian Constitution is

A – Unitary
B – Rigid
C – Flexible
D – Federal in form and Unitary in spirit

6) Freon Gas is used in

A – Air-conditioners
B – Refrigerators
C – Television
D – Nuclear reactors

7) Which of the following pairs is not correct?

A – Gulliver’s Travels - Jonathan Swift
B – Kubla Khan - Samuel Taylor Coleridge
C – Asian Drama - Leo Tolstoy
D – Lady Chatterley’s Lover - D.H. Lawrence

8) Can the Rajya Sabha be dissolved by the President?

A – Yes
B – No
C – Sometimes
D – Not always

9) How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?

A – Six
B – Eight
C – Nine
D – Twelve

10) Arjuna Award to the sportsman of the year was instituted in the year

A –1959
B – 1960
C – 1961
D – 1962

11) In India, the present trend of rapid urbanization is due to

A – Influence of cinema and electronic media
B – Lack of employment opportunities in rural areas.
C – Break up of joint family system.
D – Abolition of Zamindari system.

12) Which of the following States accounts for the largest share of Industrial production and capital investment?

A – Maharashtra
B – Gujarat
C – Tamil Nadu
D – West Bengal

13) Which of the following Rights was described by Dr. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution”?

A – Right to Equality
B – Right to Constitutional Remedies
C – Right to Religion
D – Right to Freedom

14) The preparation of soap involves the process called

A – Neutralization
B – Esterification
C – Hydrolysis
D – None of these

15) The constituent of blood associated with resistance to disease is

A – Hemoglobin
B – RBC
C – WBC
D – Jaundice

16) The first Spacecraft that landed man on the moon was

A – Appolo-I
B – Appolo-II
C – Lunik-III
D – Vega-1

17) Which of the following is known as the Rice Bowl of South India?

A – Konkan Coastal region
B – Kaveri Delta
C – Kerala
D – Krishna-Godavari Delta

18) Sickle Cell Anemia is a

A – Genetic disorder
B – Virus disease
C – Bacterial disease
D – Disease due to vitamin deficiency

19) The first European to visit China was

A – Robert Peary
B – Vasco-Da-Gama
C – Amundsen
D – Marco Polo

20) What was the title of Oliver Cromwell when he ruled England?

A – King
B – Commander-in-Chief
C – Lord Protector
D – Chancellor

21) The temperate grasslands of South America are called

A – Pampas
B – Priaries
C – Downs
D – Steppes

22) The UN body concerned with the welfare of children is

A – UNESCO
B – UNICEF
C – UNIDO
D – UNCTAD

23) The Aid India Club was formed at the suggestion of

A – World Bank
B – UK
C – USA
D – India

24) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal during India’s Struggle for Independence advocated

A – Co-operation
B – Conciliation
C – Extremism
D – Moderation

25) The President of India can be removed from his office by

A – The Prime Minister
B – The Home Minister
C – The Electorate
D – Impeachment


Answers
1) D – Anand Math (Anandamath is a Bengali novel written by Bankim Chandra Chatterji in 1882).

2) C – Rome
3) B – The area of Marshy lands
4) A – Fundamental Rights are justifiable while Directive Principles are not
5) D – Federal in form and Unitary in spirit
6) B – Refrigerators

7) C – Asian Drama - Leo Tolstoy (Karl Gunnar Myrdal wrote the book Asian Drama: An Inquiry into the Poverty of Nations, which was published in 1968)

8) B – No
9) D – Twelve
10) C – 1961
11) B – Lack of employment opportunities in rural areas.
12) A – Maharashtra
13) B – Right to Constitutional Remedies
14) D – None of these (correct answer – Saponification)
15) C – WBC
16) B – Appolo-II
17) D – Krishna - Godavari Delta
18) A – Genetic disorder
19) D – Marco Polo
20) C – Lord Protector
21) A – Pampas

22) B – UNICEF (United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund was founded in 11th December 1946 by the United Nations General Assembly to provide emergency food and healthcare to children children in countries that had been suffering from World War II.)

Full forms of other United Nations Organizations

UNESCO – United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
UNIDO – United Nations Industrial Development Organization
UNCTAD – United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

23) A – World Bank
24) C – Extremism
25) D – Impeachment

KPSC Divisional Accountant Solved Paper 2002

Part 1

1) Who created the character Sir. John Falstaff?

A – William Shakespeare
B – George Bernard Shaw
C – Charles Dickens
D – Thomas Hardy

2) “Buddhacharita” was written by

A – Banabhatta
B – Vikramaditya
C – Kalidasa
D – Ashvagosha

3) Saka Era was introduced by

A – Chandragupta Maurya
B – Kanishka
C – Ashoka
D – Harsha

4) Which one of the following Mughal Emperors patronized architecture most?

A – Humayun
B – Akbar
C – Shah Jahan
D – Jahangir

5) The British formed the East India Company in

A – 1600
B – 1601
C – 1602
D – 1603

6) The first newspaper which was published in India was

A – The Calcutta Gazette
B – The Amrit Bazar Patrika
C – The Bengal Gazatte
D – The Calcutta Chronicle

7) The immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857 was

A – Low wages paid to soldiers
B – Imperialistic exploitation
C – Use of greased cartridges
D – All of the above

8) Who was the first recognized leader of opposition in the Indian Parliament?

A – Y.B Chavan
B – S.A Dange
C – A.K Gopalan
D – S. Chandrasekhar

9) Who wrote the book “The Prince”?

A – Machiavelli
B – Francis Bacon
C – H.G. Wells
D – Bertrand Russell

10) Kancheepuram was once the capital of

A – The Cholas
B – The Pallavas
C – The Pandyas
D – The Cheras

11) Who among the following women leaders was not the President of Indian National Congress even once? (Source General Knowledge Quiz Blog)

A – Annie Beasant
B – Indira Gandhi
C – Sarojini Naidu
D – Vijayalakshmi Pandit

12) Who was the Nawab of Bengal at the time of the Battle of Plassey?

A – Mir Jaffar
B – Siraj-Ud-Daula
C – Mir Qasim
D – Mir Jumla

13) In 1943, Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose proclaimed the formation of the Provisional Government of Independent India (Azad Hind) in

A – Vienna
B – Tokyo
C – Rangoon
D – Singapore

14) Who was it that said “Where wealth accumulates, men decay” ?

A – John Adams
B – Oliver Goldsmith
C – Mahatma Gandhi
D – Swami Vivekananda

15) The countries comprising the Indian sub-continent are

A – India, Pakistan, China, Myanmar and Bangladesh
B – India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh
C – India, Nepal, China and Bangladesh
D – None of these

16) The Nilgiris are part of the

A – Western Ghats
B – Eastern Ghats
C – Aravalis
D – Satpura

17) Who among the following is a Nobel Laureate?

A – Neil Armstrong
B – Joseph Brodsky
C – Mikhail Gorbachev
D – Henry Kissinger

18) The richest type of soil is

A – Red soil
B – Alluvial Soil
C – Black Soil
D – Laterite Soil

19) The Ganges beyond Farakka after entering Bangladesh is known as

A – Padma
B – Ganga Sagar
C – Swaran Ganga
D – Meghna

20) The copper mines in India are located in

A – Mayubhanj
B – Dhanbad
C – Kolar
D – Khetri

21) The largest river of Peninsular India is

A – Godavari
B – Kaveri
C – Mahanadi
D – Krishna

22) Neyveli Lignite Project is located in

A – Andra Pradesh
B – Kerala
C – Tamil Nadu
D – Karnataka

23) The multipurpose project irrigating maximum area in India is

A – Damodar Valley
B – Hirakud
C – Beas
D – Bhakra Nangal

24) The method of Radio-carbon dating is used to find the age of

A – Fossils
B – Stars
C – Skeletons
D – Trees

25) When the days and nights are equal in both the hemispheres of the earth it is called

A – Solstice
B – Perihelion
C – Aphelion
D – Equinox

Answers


1) A – William Shakespeare
2) D – Asvaghosa (Ashvaghosha)
3) B – Kanishka
4) C – Shah Jahan (Shahjehan)
5) A – 1600
6) C – The Bengal Gazatte
7) C – Use of greased cartridges
8) A – Y.B Chavan
9) A – Machiavelli
10) B – The Pallavas
11) D – Vijayalakshmi Pandit
12) B – Siraj-Ud-Daula
13) D – Singapore
14) B – Oliver Goldsmith
15) B – India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh
16) A – Western Ghats
17) C – Mikhail Gorbachev
18) B – Alluvial Soil
19) Ans – A – Padma
20) D – Khetri is in Jhunjhunu district of Rajasthan
21) A – Godavari
22) C – Tamil Nadu
23) B – Hirakud
24) A – Fossils
25) D – Equinox

MP P.S.C. (Pre.) Indian History Solved Paper 2010

(Held on 9-5-2010)
Indian History
1. Which among the following Vedas is partly in prose ?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samaveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (C)

2. Which one among the following is a Tamil grammatical treatise ?
(A) Pattupattu
(B) Ettutogai
(C) Silappadikaram
(D) Tolkappiam
Ans : (D)

3. Who among the following has not quoted from the Indica of Megasthenese ?
(A) Pliny
(B) Strabo
(C) Diodorus
(D) Arrian
Ans : (C)

4. Who was the first to decipher the inscriptions of Ashoka and the Brahmi script ?
(A) Alexander Cunningham
(B) James Princep
(C) Max Muller
(D) Mortimer Wheeler
Ans : (B)

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Stuart Piggot
(b) Subbarao
(c) B. and R. Alchin
(d) H. D. Sankalia
List-II
1. Personality of India
2. The Birth of Indian Civilization
3. Prehistoric India
4. Prehistory and Protohistory of India and Pakistan
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (B)

6. Select the correct statement about the Nanaghat Inscription of the Satavahanas
(A) It speaks about Shaka-Satavahana conflict
(B) It refers to the place of origin of Satavahanas
(C) It speaks about the navy of the Satavahanas
(D) It refers to one of the mother-queens of the Satavahanas
Ans : (B)


7. Which among the following excavated sites is related to Malwa culture ?
(A) Navadatoli
(B) Nagda
(C) Eran
(D) Azadnagar
Ans : (A)

8. In which one of the following regions the earliest evidence of rice cultivation has come ?
(A) Central Ganga Valley
(B) Belan Valley
(C) Gomal Valley
(D) Bolan Valley
Ans : (B)

9. Horse remains are found at which of the following Harappan sites ?
(A) Surkotada, Kalibangan and Dholavira
(B) Kalibangan, Manda and Surkotada
(C) Surkotada, Dholavira and Manda
(D) Surkotada and Kalibangan
Ans : (D)

10. Identify the incorrect combination among the following—
(A) Harappa and Grenary
(B) Mohen-jo-daro and the great bath
(C) Dholavira and single citadel
(D) Lothal and Dockyard
Ans : (C)

11. At which place among these the rows of distinctive fire altars with provision of ritual bathing have been found ?
(A) Mohen-jo-daro
(B) Harappa
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Lothal
Ans : (C)

12. The main focus of the Rigvedic culture was—
(A) The Indo-Gangetic region
(B) The Punjab and Delhi region
(C) The Indus valley region
(D) The region between Swat and Indus
Ans : (A)

13. The Rigvedic king did not maintain an administrative machinery because—
(A) The king did not wish to have so
(B) The Rigvedic economy was not suitable to it
(C) The social structure was not in accordance
(D) The kingship was not hereditary
Ans : (B)

14. Which of the following statements regarding Vedic woman is not correct ?
(A) Woman attended assemblies
(B) Woman participated in sacrifices
(C) Woman was allowed to have Vedic education
(D) The family was matriarchal
Ans : (D)

15. For what reason the ganasamgha areas have been indicated as ‘mlechchhadesha’ in the post-Vedic period ?
(A) Absence of ranking based on varna
(B) Rejection of Vedic rituals
(C) Killing of cows
(D) Speaking alien languages
Ans : (B)

16. With what name the Jainism referred to before the coming of Mahavir ?
(A) Jina
(B) Kevalin
(C) Nirgranthas
(D) Tirthankaras
Ans : (D)

17. Which tradition has most importance for deciding the dates of birth and death of lord Buddha ?
(A) Ceylones Tradition–Mahavansa and Deepavansa
(B) Chinese Tradition–Canton
(C) Indian Buddhist literature–Avadana literature
(D) Tibetan Tradition–Historian Taranath
Ans : (A)

18. Which one of the following ancient cities is not related to the life of Gautam Buddha ?
(A) Champa
(B) Saketa
(C) Pataliputra
(D) Kosambi
Ans : (C)

19. The term ‘Rupadarshaka’ denotes what ?
(A) The supervisor of prostitutes
(B) The supervisor of royal harem
(C) The supervisor of the quality of coins
(D) The supervisor of the folkdancers
Ans : (C)

20. Which one of the statements is controversial in the context of the treaty of 303 B.C. between Chandragupta and Seleucus ?
(A) Seleucus surrendered his large territories to Chandragupta
(B) Chandragupta made a gift of 500 elephants to Seleucus
(C) Megasthenes was sent as a Greek envoy to the court of Chandragupta
(D) Seleucus gave his daughter in marriage to Chandragupta
Ans : (D)

21. In which year of Asoka’s coronation did the Kalinga war take place ?
(A) First
(B) Fifth
(C) Eighth
(D) Thirteenth
Ans : (C)

22. Which among the following combinations is correct ?
(A) Pushyamitra Shunga–Patanjali
(B) Kanishka–Thera Nagasena
(C) Menander–Ashvaghosh
(D) Chandragupta I–Harishena
Ans : (C)

23. Which Gupta emperor has been called ‘Lichchhavi-dauhitra’ ?
(A) Shrigupta
(B) Chandragupta I
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Samudragupta
Ans : (B)

24. Which Kushana king adopted the epithet ‘dhrama-thida’ ?
(A) Vim Kadaphises
(B) Kuzul Kadaphises
(C) Kanishka the Great
(D) Huvishka
Ans : (B)

25. Which of the following inscriptions record the annihilation of Hunas ?
(A) Prayag-Prashasti
(B) Bhitari Inscription
(C) Junagarh Inscription
(D) Mandasor Inscription
Ans : (C)

26. Who impressed upon Harsha to incline towards Buddhism ?
(A) Bhikshu Mahakashyapa
(B) Hiuen-Tsang
(C) Thera Nagasen
(D) Diwakarmitra
Ans : (D)

27. Which king is called ‘Kaviraj’ in one of his inscriptions ?
(A) Pratihara king Mihirbhoja
(B) Paramara king Bhoja
(C) Pala king Dharmapala
(D) Chalukya king Kumarapala
Ans : (B)

28. Who among these is credited with the construction of ‘Pagodas’ at Mahabalipuram ?
(A) Cholas
(B) Chalukyas of Kalyani
(C) Pallavas
(D) Pandyas
Ans : (C)

29. The Office-in-charge of collection of revenue in the Mauryan administration was—
(A) Sannidhatri
(B) Pradeshta
(C) Yukta
(D) Samahatri
Ans : (D)

30. Which of the statements about the trade regulation in the Mauryan period is not correct ?
(A) The state exercised control over the trade process and profits
(B) A levy of 1/10th was fixed on merchandise
(C) The state kept strict vigil on the sale of merchandise
(D) The state employed a few of the artisans directly
Ans : (B)

31. Which one among the following statements about the land-system of post-Mauryan period is not true ?
(A) The private individuals had absolute right over their land
(B) The private individuals had limited right to alienation of land
(C) There is no record to transfer of land non-religious purposes
(D) The person who brought the land under cultivation was the owner
Ans : (B)

32. Who among the following constituted the local town administration council during the Guptas ?
(A) Purupala, Sarthavaha, Pratham Kulika, Pratham Kayastha
(B) Purupala, Sarthavaha, Dvarapala, Karnika
(C) Sarthavaha, Pratham Kulika, Pratham Kayastha
(D) Purupala, Pratham Kulika, Pratham Kayastha
Ans : (C)

33. Who lamented upon the drain of gold from Rome to India ?
(A) Ptolemy
(B) Nero
(C) Strabo
(D) Pliny
Ans : (D)

34. Which of the following statements about the agrahara land grant is not correct ?
(A) The king could offer it to any one
(B) It was a village granted taxfree to Brahmanas
(C) The king could confiscate it on being displeased by the grantee
(D) It underlined the privileges of the Brahmanas
Ans : (A)

35. Debasement of the coins and gradual disappearance of goldcoins during the post-Gupta period indicates—
(A) Cheapness of commodities, no need of gold-coins
(B) Non-availability of gold
(C) Decline of money economy
(D) Decline of Trade
Ans : (D)

36. Which new route was added for foreign trade during Gupta period ?
(A) Overseas route to South Africa
(B) Overseas route to Alexandria
(C) Overland route to China
(D) Overland route to North Russia
Ans : (C)

37. The most famous bronze image of the Chola period belongs to—
(A) Murugan
(B) Nataraja
(C) Venkateshwar
(D) Vishnu
Ans : (B)

38. Which one among these is not a work of Kalidasa ?
(A) Ritusamhara
(B) Meghaduta
(C) Dashakumarcharita
(D) Kumarashambhava
Ans : (C)

39. The most important feature of the Dravida style of temple architecture is—
(A) Shikhara
(B) Gopuram
(C) Vimana
(D) Mandapa
Ans : (C)

40. The earliest example of a ‘Panchayatana’ composition in temple is—
(A) Dashavatara temple–Deogarh
(B) Temple at Pathari
(C) Shatrughneshwara temple at Bhubaneshwar
(D) Lakshmana temple at Sirpur
Ans : (A)

41. Who is the writer of ‘Kitab-ur-Rehla’ ?
(A) Maulana Sharafuddin Ali Yazid
(B) Amir Timur
(C) Ibn-i-Batuta
(D) Khwaja Abdullah Malik Isami
Ans : (C)

42. Which of these books was authored by Sultan Feroz Shah Tughlaq himself ?
(A) Fautuhat-i-Ferozshahi
(B) Fatawa-i-Jahandari
(C) Tarikh-i-Ferozshahi
(D) Tughlaqnama
Ans : (A)

43. Which of these books is not a composition of Amir Khusrau ?
(A) Qiran-u-Sadain
(B) Tahqiq-i-Hind
(C) Miftah-ul-Futuh
(D) Nur-i-Sipihar
Ans : (B)

44. Who among the following kings formed a confederacy of Hindu kings against Mahmud of Ghazni ?
(A) Jaipala
(B) Anandapala
(C) Both Jaipala and Anandpala
(D) Anangapala
Ans : (C)

45. When did the Mahmud of Ghazni attack last on India ?
(A) 1021–22 A.D.
(B) 1024 A.D.
(C) 1025 A.D.
(D) 1027 A.D.
Ans : (D)

46. Name the Arab astronomer who studied Sanskrit and astronomy for a decade at Varanasi ?
(A) Alberuni
(B) Amir Khusrau
(C) Al’bidari
(D) Al’Masher
Ans : (A)

47. Who among the following foreign travellers did not visit Vijayanagar during the time of Krishnadeo Raya ?
(A) Nicolo Conti
(B) Fernao Nuniz
(C) Domingo Paes
(D) Duarte Barbosa
Ans : (A)

48. Which of these features of Indian art was adopted in the construction of Mosques in India ?
(A) Turned Lotus
(B) Kalash on the domes
(C) Ornamentation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

49. Who said, “God knows man’s virtues and inquires not his caste; in the next world there is no caste” ?
(A) Kabir
(B) Guru Nanak
(C) Chaitanya
(D) Ramananda
Ans : (A)

50. Who among these devotional saints was a cobler ?
(A) Tulsidas
(B) Surdas
(C) Raidas
(D) Malukdas
Ans : (C)

51. Who founded the Varkari sect in Maharashtra ?
(A) Tukaram
(B) Namdev
(C) Visoba Khechar
(D) Eknath
Ans : (C)

52. The Sufi concept of Anal Haq was inspired by the following concept of Vedanta—
(A) Tat Twam Asi (that thou art)
(B) Ekam Advaitam (one without the second)
(C) Aham Brahmasmi (I am the supreme spirit)
(D) All of the above
Ans : (C)

53. Which Muslim poet of Hindi literature in medieval period wrote poetry essentially on Hindu mythological heroes ?
(A) Qutban
(B) Rasakhan
(C) Mulla Daud
(D) Amir Khusrau
Ans : (B)

54. Which of the following musical instruments is not composite or Indo-Islamic in origin ?
(A) Sitar
(B) Shehnai
(C) Tabla
(D) Sarangi
Ans : (B)

55. Which among the following wars Muhammad Ghori did not participate himself in India ?
(A) Battle of Tarain in 1191
(B) Battle against Kannauj in 1194
(C) Against Chalukyas of Anhilawada in 1197-98
(D) Against Khokharas in 1205
Ans : (C)

56. Who was the Turkish commander who conquered Bihar and Bengal ?
(A) Mohammad of Ghur
(B) Kutub ud-Din Aibak
(C) Ikhtiyar ud-Din-Muhammad
(D) Bakhtiyar Khalji
Ans : (D)

57. Where did Kutub ud-Din Aibak lay the foundation of ‘seven cities’ in medieval Delhi ?
(A) Siri
(B) Tughlaqabad
(C) Mehrauli
(D) Hauz Khas
Ans : (B)

58. Which Sultan called himself ‘Naib-i-Khudai’ ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Balban
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Ans : (B)

59. Which sultan of Delhi refused to read ‘Khutba’ in the name of Khalifa for the first time ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(C) Sikandar Lodi
(D) Ibrahim Lodi
Ans : (A)

60. Which Delhi Sultan styled himself Sikandar-i-sani (the second Alexander) ?
(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)

61. The dynasty founded by Khizr Khan is known as Sayyid dynasty because—
(A) He and his successors adopted the title Sayyid
(B) Khizr Khan belonged to the Sayyid tribe of eastern Turkistan
(C) Khizr Khan was the descendant of the prophet Muhammad
(D) He was a scholar of Islamic theology
Ans : (C)

62. Who were called barids ?
(A) Craftsmen working in state workshops
(B) Bodyguards of the sultan
(C) Officer-in-charge of state exchequer
(D) The spy reporters
Ans : (D)

63. Who among the following officers held highest stature in the central government of the Sultanate ?
(A) Qazi-ul-Mulk
(B) Naib-i-Mulk
(C) Head of the Majlis-i-Khalawat
(D) Wazir
Ans : (B)

64. Who among the following did not act as a tax farmer ?
(A) Village headman
(B) Patwari
(C) Governor
(D) Tributary chief
Ans : (D)

65. In Early Medieval India “Dosi Hatt” was—
(A) Animal Market
(B) Meena Bazar
(C) Kapaas (Cotton) Market
(D) Slave Bazar
Ans : (C)

66. Who was the founder of independent kingdom of Gujarat ?
(A) Zafar Khan
(B) Tatar Khan
(C) Shama Khan
(D) Ahmad Shah
Ans : (A)

67. The single biggest item of import to the Vijayanagar empire was—
(A) Precious stones
(B) Horses
(C) Luxury goods
(D) Raw Silk
Ans : (B)

68. Which contemporary Mughal historian of the age of Akbar had prepared a list of charges calling him an enemy of Islam ?
(A) Badauni
(B) Niamtullah
(C) Abbas Khan Sarwani
(D) Nizamuddin Ahmad
Ans : (A)

69. Who is the writer of ‘Tabqat-i-Akbari’ ?
(A) Badauni
(B) Khwaja Nizamuddin Ahmad
(C) Abul Fazl
(D) Khwand Mir
Ans : (B)

70. Which famous painter among the following did not remain in the court of Akbar ?
(A) Farrukh Beg
(B) Dasawanth
(C) Aga Reza
(D) Basawan
Ans : (A)

71. Who among the following Mughal princess produced a ‘diwan’ (collection of poems) with the name ‘Makhi’ ?
(A) Humayun’s sister Gulbadan Begum
(B) Shah Jahan’s daughter Jahanara
(C) Shah Jahan’s daughter Roshanara
(D) Aurangzeb’s daughter Zibunnisa
Ans : (D)

72. Which jeweller foreign traveller of the Mughal period has left a detailed account of Takht-i-Taus (Peacock throne) ?
(A) Travernier
(B) Geronimo Verroneo
(C) ‘Omrah’ Danishmand Khan
(D) Austin of Bordeaux
Ans : (A)

73. Whom did Sher Shah appoint to provide bed and food to Hindu travellers staying at ‘Sarais’ (rest houses) ?
(A) Afghan Muslims
(B) Muslims
(C) Brahmanas
(D) Low caste Hindus
Ans : (D)

74. Which one among the following statements is not correct about the agrarian policy of Sher Shah ?
(A) Sher Shah insisted upon measurement of the sown land
(B) Sher Shah drew up schedule of rates for state’s share of the different types of crops
(C) The amount each peasant had to pay was to be written down on a paper called ‘patta’
(D) The measuring part was allowed to fix fee at their will
Ans : (D)

75. When did Aurangzeb arrive in Deccan finally to quell the revolt of Marathas ?
(A) 1681
(B) 1682
(C) 1689
(D) 1700
Ans : (C)

76. Which among the following is the most important source of information about the agrarian conditions during Mughals ?
(A) Ain-i-Akbari
(B) Akbarnama
(C) Muntakhab-ul-Lubab
(D) Tarikh-i-Ferishta
Ans : (B)

77. What portion of actual produce was fixed as the demand of the state under the ‘Zabit’ system ?
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-fifth
Ans : (B)

78. Which Maratha saint is most importantly known for social reform, national regeneration and the rise of Maratha power ?
(A) Eknath
(B) Tukaram
(C) Samartha Ramdas
(D) Vaman Pandit
Ans : (C)

79. The chief gain to Shivaji from his raids of Surat in 1664 and 1670 was—
(A) Immense increase in his prestige
(B) Demoralisation of the Mughal forces
(C) Capture of the English factory
(D) A lot of booty
Ans : (D)

80. What was the unit of measurement of land in Maratha dominion ?
(A) Kathi
(B) Tanab
(C) Jarib
(D) Daftari bigha
Ans : (A)

81. How did Portuguese firstly affect Indian trade and industry ?
(A) By forcing Gujarat and Calicut to abandon construction of ships or even armed rowing boats
(B) By monopolising port-toport trade on the Malabar coast and the trade from Indian to Persian coast
(C) In both (A) and (B) ways above
(D) By dictating the prices of horses imported by native Indian powers after ousting Arabs
Ans : (B)

82. What was the occasion of handing over of Mumbai (Bombay) to Britishers by the Portuguese ?
(A) Freedom of Portuguese from the control of Spain
(B) Marriage of Charles II with the Portuguese princess Catherine of Braganza
(C) Crushing of Spanish Armada by British in 1588
(D) The Treaty of Madrid in 1630
Ans : (B)

83. What made Jahangir to issue a farman in 1613 A.D. to the English to establish a factory at Surat ?
(A) Reconciliation between the English and Portuguese
(B) A secret offer of naval help to the Mughal emperor to oust the Portuguese
(C) A heavy dose of bribe to Nur Jahan
(D) The defeat of Portuguese naval squadrons by the English
Ans : (D)

84. The Indian port(s) utilized by Dutch for their trade in India was/were—
(A) Pulicat
(B) Masulipattam
(C) Nagapattam
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

85. The founder of French East India Company for trade in India was—
(A) Colbert
(B) Francois Martin
(C) Francois Caron
(D) De La Haye
Ans : (A)

86. Where was the first Presidency of English East India Company in India ?
(A) Chennai (Madras)
(B) Masulipattam
(C) Surat
(D) Hugli
Ans : (C)

87. Aurangzeb ordered the arrest of all Englishmen and the seizure of all English factories throughout his dominion, because—
(A) The English had refused to pay local duties in Bengal
(B) The English had attacked the Mughal ships on the western coast
(C) The English were fortifying their trading stations
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

88. The English exported from Bengal—
(A) Sugar
(B) Saltpetre
(C) Silks
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

89. The immediate cause of Siraj-uddaula’s campaign against the English in 1757 was—
(A) The refusal of the English to pay taxes on their goods
(B) The levying of heavy duties by the English on Indian goods entering Kolkata (Calcutta)
(C) Additional fortification of Kolkata (Calcutta) without the permission or even the knowledge of the nawab
(D) The English taking up the cause of Shaukut Jang, a rival of Siraj-ud-daula
Ans : (A)

90. How was the control of company in Bengal legitimized ?
(A) The imperial grant of the ‘diwani’ of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa by Shah Alam II
(B) The treaty with Mir Zafar after the battle of Plassey in 1757
(C) The treaty with Mir Zafar after the battle of Buxar in 1764
(D) The treaty of February 1765 with Nizam-ud-daula
Ans : (D)

91. The first serious blow inflicted by the English on India’s handloom industry was—
(A) Duty imposed on the looms
(B) Compulsion of weavers to sell their goods on dictated prices
(C) Shortage of cotton due to export of raw-cotton
(D) Infiltration of cash crops like indigo and opium in the cottongrowing area
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following statements is not applicable to the Mahalwari settlement ?
(A) It was a permanant measure introduced as an improvement on the other two measures
(B) It was applied to each village and the estate separately
(C) The government instead of coming in contract with the cultivator made settlement with the village community as a whole
(D) It was introduced in the Gangetic valley, the Punjab and the parts of Central India
Ans : (A)

93. Which of the following statements about the new landlords is not correct ?
(A) They were town dwelling merchants and moneyed classes with no roots in the village
(B) They were free to harass the cultivators
(C) They were mere rent collecting absentee businessmen
(D) They had converted the peasants to mere cultivators by taking away their traditional rights over their land
Ans : (C)

94. Which of the following reasons is not correct with regard to the decline of economy of India during English rule ?
(A) Lack of qualification and technical skill in the Indians
(B) Failure to get overseas market due to lack sea power
(C) Unprotected indigenous industry due to weak guild organizations
(D) Lack of the class of industrial enterprizers in India
Ans : (A)

95. Who first expounded the theory of ‘economic drain’ of India during the British rule ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Ramesh Chanda Dutt
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) Surendra Nath Banerjee
Ans : (C)

96. What among the following factors was not applicable to the conditions of abject poverty in India during the British rule ?
(A) Decay of Agricultural production and indigenuous industries
(B) Investment of foreign capital in India
(C) Insufficient growth of modern industries
(D) High taxation
Ans : (B)

97. Who among these was not a part of triple alliance on the eve of first Anglo-Mysore war of 1767-69 ?
(A) The English
(B) Nizam of Hyderabad
(C) The Marathas
(D) Raja of Travancore
Ans : (D)

98. Tipu Sultan was ahead of his contemporaries in many respect because—
(A) He understood the threat posed by English to the Indian powers
(B) He understood the importance of strong economic base for the military power
(C) He understood the importance of modern trade and industry
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

99. Who among the following Maratha chiefs was the last to enter into a subsidiary alliance with the English ?
(A) The Peshwas
(B) Holkar
(C) Bhonsle
(D) Scindia
Ans : (B)

100. On what condition Wellesly agreed to help Peshwa Bajirao II ?
(A) His agreeing to the abolition of the office of the Peshwa after his death
(B) An underhand transaction of Rs. 15 lakh
(C) His consent to the subsidiary alliance
(D) His agreeing to dispossess Scindia from his fief
Ans : (C)

101. From whom did the English secure the rights of duty free trade after Bengal ?
(A) Nawab of Awadh
(B) Raja of Banaras
(C) The Nizam of Hyderabad
(D) The Jats of Bharatpur
Ans : (A)

102. With whom did Raja Ranjit Singh conclude the treaty of Lahore in 1806 which gave him freedom to expand north of Sutlej ?
(A) Peshwa Bajirao II
(B) Holkar of Indore
(C) Scindia of Gwalior
(D) East India Company
Ans : (D)

103. Who among the following did not become a prey of Dalhousie’s policy of absorption ?
(A) Satara
(B) Nagpur
(C) Scindia
(D) Mysore
Ans : (D)

104. Why did Mumbai (Bombay) and Chennai (Madras) not join the revolt of 1857 along with northern provinces ?
(A) They failed to find necessary leadership due to ryotwari settlement
(B) They had remained comparatively free from annexations and confiscations
(C) They had more tolerant and enlightened administrators
(D) They were at a great distance from Kolkata (Calcutta), the seat of British administration
Ans : (D)

105. What was the grieviest cause of discontent among soldiers before the revolt of 1857 ?
(A) Question of promotion and pay
(B) Non-observance of caste distinctions
(C) Frequent campaigns in distant lands
(D) Absence of a proper and equitable procedure for discipline and control
Ans : (A)

106. Who led the revolt of 1857 in Lucknow ?
(A) Tatya Tope
(B) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
(C) Birjis Qadir
(D) Begum Hazrat Mahal
Ans : (D)

107. Who among the following said, “One religion, one caste and one God for mankind” ?
(A) Jyotiba Phule
(B) Vivekananda
(C) Sri Narayan Guru
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Ans : (C)

108. Which is called the ‘magna carta’ of western education system in India ?
(A) The report of the Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
(B) The Charter Act of 1833
(C) Report of the Hunter Commission, 1862
(D) Despatch of Sir Charles Wood, Secretary of State, 1854
Ans : (D)

109. Which of the following organizations did Raja Ram Mohan Roy conceive of ahead of his times ?
(A) World Court of Justice
(B) Economic Community
(C) League of Nations
(D) Common Market
Ans : (C)

110. Who guided the establishment of Prarthana Samaj in Maharashtra ?
(A) Keshub Chunder Sen
(B) Lokhitwadi
(C) Shibnath Shastri
(D) Debendranath Tagore
Ans : (A)

111. Which of the following books does not match with its author ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji—‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’
(B) R. C. Dutt—‘Economic History of India’
(C) Mahatma Gandhi—‘Hind Swaraj’
(D) D. R. Gadgil—‘Indian Industry, Today and Tomorrow’
Ans : (D)

112. In 1922 “Bhil Seva Mandal” was established by—
(A) Narain Malhar Joshi
(B) Amritlal Vitthaldas Thakkar
(C) Jyotiba Phule
(D) Baba Amte
Ans : (B)

113. On what ground the second split in Congress took place in 1918 ?
(A) Lucknow Pact
(B) Montague Declaration
(C) Election of Mrs. Annie Besant as the President of the Congress in 1917
(D) Both (B) and (C) above
Ans : (B)

114. By which Act the Public Service Commission was first established in India ?
(A) The Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) The Act of 1909
(C) The Government of India Act, 1919
(D) The Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (C)

115. Who was the mastermind of bomb attack on Lord Hardinge at Chandani Chowk, Delhi in 1912 ?
(A) Rasbehari Bose
(B) Bhai Paramanand
(C) Sachindranath Sanyal
(D) Sohan Lal Pathak
Ans : (A)

116. Who was selected as the first satyagrahi by Mahatma Gandhi to begin the individual satyagraha in 1940 ?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) J.B. Kripalani
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (B)

117. Who was the founder president of Harijan Sevak Samgha founded by Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) Mahadev Desai
(B) G. D. Birla
(C) Amrit Lal Thakkar
(D) B. R. Ambedkar
Ans : (C)

118. What was the provocation behind the damand of separate electorate etc. under fourteen points of Jinnah ?
(A) Fear of the majority rule
(B) Communal politics of Hindu Mahasabha and Sikh League
(C) Disagreement with the proposals contained in the Nehru report
(D) The challenge of the British government for drawing up an agreed Constitution of India
Ans : (C)

119. What was the reason for the rejection of the Government of India Act, 1935 by the Congress ?
(A) The Indians were not consulted
(B) It was stalling the establishment of people’s government
(C) The provisions made in the name provincial autonomy were violative of democratic rights
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

120. When did Gandhiji go to fast unto death for the first time ?
(A) At the time of Communal award
(B) At the time of riots in Kolkatta (Calcutta)
(C) At the time of riots in Delhi
(D) At the time of Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
Ans : (D)

Combined Defence Service Solved Paper 2009

(Held on 15-2-2009)
English

Ordering of Sentences

Directions—(For the 15 items which follow) In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and indicate your correct response accordingly.

Example—‘X’ has been solved for you.
X. S1 : There was a boy named Jack.
S6 : At last she turned him out of the house.
P : So, the mother asked him to find work.
Q : They were very poor.
R : He lived with his mother.
S : But Jack refused to work
The proper sequence should be—
(A) R Q P S
(B) P Q R S
(C) Q P R S
(D) R P S Q

Explanation—The correct sequence in this example is R Q P S which is marked by (A). Therefore, (A) is the correct answer.

1. S1 : Having visited the Taj Mahal many tourists think that Agra has little else to offer.
S6 : There are few other buildings to match the delicacy of this tomb.
P : One of these is surely the tomb of Itimad-ud-daulah.
Q : The design of the whole tomb was given by his daughter Nur Jahan.
R : After seeing the Taj one could profitably visit half a dozen other Mughal buildings.
S : This tomb has the delicacy of a baroque jewel case.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) R S Q P
(B) Q S R P
(C) S P R Q
(D) R P S Q
Ans : (D)

2. S1 : For years the old chair stood in one of the empty antics.
S6 : I saw my parents madly in love again.
P : So when I saw it for the last time, it stood there.
Q : When my mother died, I wanted to sell it but could not.
R : It was there for many years after my father died.
S : I peeped in the past.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) P Q R S
(B) S R Q P
(C) R P Q S
(D) R Q P S
Ans : (D)

3. S1 : Illness may start with almost any sign, but some of them are much commoner than others.
S6 : As soon as this happens he must become alert about the signs.
P : It is important to note these signs.
Q : Often the first sign of something wrong is that the patient just does not feel fit.
R : They may help a doctor to decide what is wrong.
S : He usually relies on these signs for the diagnosis of the illness.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) P R S Q
(B) R S Q P
(C) P Q S R
(D) Q R S P
Ans : (A)

4. S1 : Newton was perhaps the greatest scientist that ever lived.
S6 : Newton went home and worked quietly by himself for about 18 months.
P : But when he was only 22, a terrible plague epidemic swept over England.
Q : He was the son of a Lincolnshire farmer, and was born in 1642.
R : Therefore, the universities were closed.
S : He went to Cambridge to study mathematics when he was 19.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) S P R Q
(B) Q P S R
(C) S Q P R
(D) Q S P R
Ans : (D)

5. S1 : Poverty is a God’s curse. S6 : Is not poverty a God’s boon !
P : These persons get themselves enrolled as poor persons and get all the benefis of poverty.
Q : It is not necessary for a person to be actually poor for getting enrolled because it can be easily managed.
R : It may be true for a few but to many it is just its opposite.
S : Such persons consider it to be a source of enjoying life without earning enjoyment.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) R Q P S
(B) Q R S P
(C) R S P Q
(D) S R Q P
Ans : (C)

6. S1 : Belur is 35 km from Hassan.
S6 : They depict young women – musicians and dancers – in various poses.
P : Seen from afar, the starshaped temple, characteristically Hoysala, is not very impressive.
Q : It stands in a courtyard surrounded by a rectangular wall.
R : But closer it is dazzling and marvellous; and the entire exterior is decorated with sculptures, the loveliest being the panels right and left of the main door.
S : Chennakesava Temple is dedicated to Vishnu.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) Q R S P
(B) S R P Q
(C) S P Q R
(D) S Q P R
Ans : (D)

7. S1 : When his business failed, he began to look for a job in an office.
S6 : Unable to bear misfortunes any further, he started toying with the idea of ending his life of burdens and strains.
P : To overcome depression he took to drinking and became addicted to it.
Q : He soon realized that nothing was more difficult than to find a job.
R : Without job he failed to meet the daily requirements of his family which made him highly depressed.
S : Quarrel ensued invariably between husband and wife when he returned home in a state of drunkenness.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) P Q R S
(B) S R Q P
(C) Q S R P
(D) Q R P S
Ans : (D)

8. S1 : Unlike many modern thinkers, Tagore had no blueprint for the world’s salvation.
S6 : As a poet he will always delight, as a singer he will always enchant, as a teacher he will always enlighten.
P : His thought will therefore never be out of date.
Q : He merely emphasized certain basic truths which men may ignore only at their peril.
R : He believed in no particular ‘ism’.
S : He was what Gandhiji rightly termed the Great Sentinel.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) S R P Q
(B) P R Q S
(C) R S P Q
(D) R Q P S
Ans : (D)

9. S1 : Louis Pasteur had a very busy and interesting life.
S6 : He was always very proud of being able to help his country in this way.
P : Among the people whom Pasteur was able to help were brewers, breeders of silk worms, and cow keepers, all of whom were trying to carry on important industries.
Q : He worked hard in his laboratory with test tubes and all kinds of experiments.
R : He was working to help people who were suffering in some special way from disease.
S : He not only made some exciting discoveries about germs but he was able to use his discoveries in very practical ways.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) S Q R P
(B) P Q R S
(C) Q R S P
(D) R S Q P
Ans : (C)

10. S1 : Tom Walker and his wife were always at loggerheads.
S6 : Tom silently thanked God for this relief.
P : She never tired of reproaching him on this score.
Q : Tom was incurably lazy and talkative.
R : One day Mrs. Walker caught a deadly cold, and shortly afterwards, died.
S : This was a constant source of irritation to his wife.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) P R Q S
(B) Q S P R
(C) S Q R P
(D) P S Q R
Ans : (B)

11. S1 : So we went on in the quiet, and the twilight deepened into night.
S6 : Then as the darkness grew deeper, she put her arms round my neck, and, closing her eyes tightly pressed her face against my shoulder.
P : The ground grew dim and the trees black.
Q : The clear blue of the distance faded, and one star after another came out.
R : Neena’s fears and her fatigue grew upon her.
S : I took her in my arms and talked to her and caressed her.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) P R Q S
(B) Q P R S
(C) Q P S R
(D) R S P Q
Ans : (B)

12. S1 : Kennedy kicked moodily at the leg of the chair which he was holding.
S6 : It was a depressing beginning.
P : Now his chief desire seemed to be to score off the human race in general, his best friend included.
Q : If he had asked Fenn to help him in a tight place, then he knew he could have relied on him.
R : Last term he and Fenn had been as close friends as you could wish to see.
S : The feeling that his whole world had fallen about his ears was increasing with every hour he spend at Kay’s.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) P R S Q
(B) R S P Q
(C) S R Q P
(D) R Q P S
Ans : (C)

13. S1 : I sat at the table and ate.
S6 : I was just the normal Ramaswamy, husband of Madeleine.
P : My breathing became suddenly difficult.
Q : I concentrated on my food and I was convinced I had to eat.
R : I stopped, however, any exhibition of the extraordinary.
S : But lungs have temperament.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) P R S Q
(B) Q S P R
(C) Q S R P
(D) S P R Q
Ans : (B)

14. S1 : Todd borrowed this dollar last year on the 8th of April.
S6 : And I said, ‘certainly’.
P : He needed a dollar to pay his taxi and I lent it to him.
Q : He merely said, ‘Let me have a dollar, will you’ !
R : It happened quite simply and naturally.
S : I hardly realised it till it was all over.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) P R S Q
(B) R S P Q
(C) Q R P S
(D) P Q R S
Ans : (A)

15. S1 : People have always been fascinated by dreams.
S6 : But a small number, perhaps less than 5% have them regularly.
P : In fact, only recently have there been serious studies to find out how many of us actually have nightmares.
Q : Now that is changing.
R : But the study of nightmares has been curiously neglected.
S : While results so far are inconclusive, it seems fair to say that at least half the population has occasional nightmares.
The proper sequence should be—
(A) S R P Q
(B) R Q P S
(C) P Q R S
(D) S Q R P
Ans : (B)

SPOTTING ERRORS
Directions—(For the 16 items which follow)—
(i) In this Section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are in three separate parts and each one is labeled (A), (B) and (C). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the parts (A), (B) or (C), indicate your response. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (D) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each item. (If you indicate more than one response, your answer will be considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.

(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response.

Examples—‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you.
P. The young child (A) / singed (B) / a very sweet song. (C) No error (D)
Q. We worked (A) / very hard (B) / through-out the season. (C) No error (D)

Explanation—In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter under this part is (B); so (B) is the correct answer. Similarly, for item Q, (D) is the correct answer, as the sentence does not contain any error.

16. I went to his house but (A) / couldn’t see him (B) / because he went out before I arrived. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

17. When I shall see him, (A) / I will tell him that (B) / what he has done is wrong. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)

18. Literature remains the interest of a minority (A) / and the majority has chosen to ignore those aspects of language (B) / which, at school they were told to value highly. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

19. I look (A) / forward to meet you (B) / in future. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

20. If I was the king, (A) / I would change the face (B) / of my country. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)

21. He admits that (A) / he is not following (B) / the instructions. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (D)

22. Life on board ship (A) / was not as I expected (B) / it to be. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

23. He did not pass the examination (A) / inspite of (B) / his best efforts. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

24. I tried to read your letter, (A) / but it was so badly written (B) / that I had to leave the attempt. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

25. I prefer (A) / my job (B) / to yours. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

26. If there a guarantee (A) / then we are prepared (B) / to place a bulk order for your product. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)

27. I meet him (A) / once a blue moon (B) / so I do not know much about his activities. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

28. My daughter-in-laws (A) / who are in Kolkata (B) / have come to visit us. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)

29. He asked me (A) / what my name is (B) / and where I came from. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

30. There has always been (A) / some form of education (B) / but there has not always been schools. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

31. At the (A) / annual function of the school (B) / the principal advised to the students to be ideal citizens. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)


ANTONYMS
Directions—(For the 21 items which follow)—Each of the following twenty one items consists of a word or a group of words in capital letters followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is farthest in meaning to the word in capital letters.

32. REPLENISH
(A) Deplete
(B) Increase
(C) Enlarge
(D) Unprotect
Ans : (A)

33. RELENTLESS
(A) Ruthless
(B) Restless
(C) Be merciful
(D) Be harsh
Ans : (C)

34. RESILIENCE
(A) Silence
(B) Buoyancy
(C) Rigidity
(D) Emptiness
Ans : (D)

35. QUERULOUS
(A) Confident
(B) Cheerful
(C) Firm
(D) Quarrelsome
Ans : (B)

36. ACQUITTED
(A) Neglected
(B) Discharged
(C) Arrested
(D) Convicted
Ans : (D)

37. AT THE ELEVENTH HOUR
(A) At night
(B) At noon
(C) Late
(D) Early
Ans : (D)

38. GRUDGING
(A) Wholehearted
(B) Reluctant
(C) Convincing
(D) Secretive
Ans : (A)

39. DIVULGE
(A) Reveal
(B) Hide
(C) Tell
(D) Inform
Ans : (B)

40. GARRULOUS
(A) Reticent
(B) Soft-spoken
(C) Peaceful
(D) Kind
Ans : (A)

41. REJUVENATED
(A) Reaffirmed
(B) Reincarnated
(C) Exhausted
(D) Devastated
Ans : (C)

42. THWARTED
(A) Foiled
(B) Opposed
(C) Supported
(D) Tightened
Ans : (C)

43. BIG-WIGS
(A) Mangers-on
(B) Small fry
(C) Riff-raff
(D) Novices
Ans : (B)

44. PRONE TO
(A) Prior to
(B) Preceding
(C) Immune to
(D) Vulnerable to
Ans : (C)

45. OBSEQUIOUS
(A) Offensive
(B) Dignified
(C) Irritating
(D) Subservient
Ans : (A)

46. FIGHT SHY OF
(A) Welcome
(B) Avoid
(C) Quarrel with
(D) Feel shy of
Ans : (A)

47. BY FITS AND STARTS
(A) Regularly
(B) When in a fit
(C) From time to time
(D) Without steady application
Ans : (A)

48. PAUCITY
(A) Plenty
(B) Pressure
(C) Pause
(D) Retention
Ans : (A)

49. DIFFIDENCE
(A) Confusio
(B) Confidence
(C) Contentment
(D) Dissatisfaction
Ans : (B)

50. DELETERIOUS
(A) Dilatory
(B) Harmless
(C) Being delicate
(D) Salubrious
Ans : (B)

51. EXASPERATED
(A) Encouraged
(B) Impressed
(C) Diverted
(D) Delighted
Ans : (D)

52. ON THE SLY
(A) Openly
(B) Secretly
(C) Casually
(D) Actively
Ans : (A)

MEANING FOR IDIOMS/PHRASES
Directions—(For the 5 items which follow)—You are given four alternative meanings to each of the following idioms/phrases. Choose the most appropriate one.

53. BLOW BY BLOW
(A) Eruptions in quick succession from a great volcano
(B) Continuously raining with thunders
(C) Describe an event in every detail as it occurred
(D) A rapid decline of business leading to its closure
Ans : (C)

54. BY HOOK OR BY CROOK
(A) In a completely insane manner
(B) In whatever way one can
(C) Being very evil and destructive
(D) To be very tenacious
Ans : (B)

55. CHOCK-A-BLOCK
(A) Filled to capacity
(B) Not being able to fulfil one’s desires
(C) Blocking somebody’s path to progress
(D) Suffocation caused due to living in a congested area
Ans : (D)

56. A FEATHER IN ONE’S CAP
(A) Accumulating more money or property
(B) Taking more burden on oneself
(C) Being felicitated for one’s artistic merits
(D) Something achieved that constitutes a victory
Ans : (D)

57. FOR GOOD
(A) For a good cause
(B) Temporarily
(C) Permanently
(D) Seriously
Ans : (C)

SYNONYMS
Directions—(For the 23 items which follow) Each of the following twenty three items consists of a word in capital letters followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word in capital letters.

58. GENIAL
(A) Generous
(B) Wonderful
(C) Liberal
(D) Friendly and cheerful
Ans : (D)

59. REVAMP
(A) Retreat
(B) Reconstruct
(C) Retrial
(D) Retrace
Ans : (B)

60. RESCIND
(A) Reunite
(B) Repeal
(C) Reserve
(D) Reproach
Ans : (B)

61. RESPLENDENT
(A) Wonderful
(B) Dazzling
(C) Beautiful
(D) Respectful
Ans : (B)

62. CORPULENT
(A) Fleshy
(B) Thin
(C) Stout
(D) Bony
Ans : (C)

63. ACRIMONY
(A) Disagreement
(B) Despondency
(C) Bitterness
(D) Difference
Ans : (C)

64. CANTANKEROUS
(A) Bad tempered
(B) Full of contempt
(C) Very sick
(D) Very envious
Ans : (A)

65. FELICITY
(A) Peac
(B) Comfort
(C) Faithfulness
(D) Great happiness
Ans : (D)

66. UNRUFFLED
(A) Simple
(B) Indifferent
(C) Sluggish
(D) Calm
Ans : (D)

67. FELINE
(A) Feminine
(B) Cat-like
(C) Ferocious
(D) Ugly and clumsy
Ans : (B)

68. TENUOUS
(A) Being tenacious
(B) Not substantial
(C) Gross
(D) Popular
Ans : (B)

69. EXQUISITE
(A) Highly refined
(B) Too costly
(C) Extemporaneous
(D) Exotic
Ans : (A)

70. WRESTED
(A) Took by force
(B) Took away easily
(C) Lost narrowly
(D) Won easily
Ans : (A)

71. EXPOSTULATED
(A) Requested
(B) Quarrelled ferociously
(C) Remonstrated
(D) Appealed with good reason
Ans : (C)

72. PLACATE
(A) Implore
(B) Flatter
(C) Pacify
(D) Compensate
Ans : (C)

73. PERPETUAL
(A) Contagious
(B) Continuous
(C) Perplexing
(D) Perennial
Ans : (B)

74. DAUNTLESS
(A) Praiseworthy
(B) Effortless and smooth
(C) Fearless and determined
(D) Unceasing
Ans : (C)

75. SEETHING
(A) Dissatisfied
(B) Be agitated
(C) Noisy
(D) Soothing
Ans : (B)

76. STINGY
(A) Violent
(B) Miserly
(C) Cautious
(D) Quarrelsome
Ans : (B)

77. EXULTATION
(A) Extinction
(B) Anxiety
(C) Jubilation
(D) Expectation
Ans : (C)

78. DOUGHTY
(A) Dastardly
(B) Deceptive
(C) Flabby
(D) Valiant
Ans : (D)

79. OBVIATE
(A) Delaying the solution of a problem
(B) To remove a difficulty
(C) Make obstruction
(D) Supercede
Ans : (B)

80. SACRILEGE
(A) Offering sacrifice
(B) Privilege
(C) Blasphemy
(D) Being sacred
Ans : (C)

COMPREHENSION
Directions—(For the 20 items which follow) In this Section, you have six short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a passage, and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Examples—‘I’ and ‘J’ are solved for you.
Passage
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.

I. The author’s main point is that—
(A) different forms of life are found on earth
(B) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(C) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(D) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life

J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s position ?
(A) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(B) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace
(C) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(D) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life and pain and death

Explanation—
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is “peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings”, which is response (C). So (C) is the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is ‘The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace’, which is response (B). So (B) is the correct answer.

Passage–I
Ah ! whatever could be said was said. All held him guilty. Even his own mother who claimed to understand him the best. All had betrayed him in his hour of need. Yet, there he was, still with a sparkling hope and knew that the truth must prevail. In the cold, dark and damp cell he never for a moment lost faith in God and goodness and was waiting anxiously for an angel to come, plead non-guilty for him and free him of his miseries.

81. Three of the following statements indicate that he had a sparkling hope. Which statement does not ?
(A) He had never lost faith in God
(B) He was sure there was goodness
(C) He could have evidence in his favour
(D) He knew that the truth must prevail
Ans : (C)

82. Whatever others said about him, he—
(A) Betrayed no one
(B) Thought over the problem
(C) Never lost faith in goodness
(D) Raised his voice against injustice
Ans : (C)

83. In the dark dungeon he always waited for—
(A) His mother
(B) The jailer
(C) The verdict freeing him of his miseries
(D) The angel to come and plead for him
Ans : (D)

84. The truth must prevail means—
(A) He was true
(B) Angel will reveal truth
(C) Truth always wins in the end
(D) We must plead for the truth
Ans : (C)

Passage–II
Once while travelling by the local bus, I got a seat beside a very strange man. He seemed interested in every passenger aboard. He would stare at a person, scribble some odd mathematical notations on his long notebook and then move on to the next. Being quite interested in what he was doing I asked him what all those notations meant and then came the startling reply. He saw a man’s face not as a single unit but as thousands of squares put together. He was in fact a statistical expert and a budding artist learning the art of graphics.

85. The man was scribbling down—
(A) The figures of co-passengers
(B) The details of thousands of squares put together
(C) Some mathematical formulae and calculations
(D) Some mathematical signs
Ans : (D)

86. The man caught author’s attention because—
(A) He was sitting next to him
(B) He was staring at every person in the bus
(C) He would stare at every person and then scribble down some mathematical notation
(D) He was a budding artist learning the art of graphics
Ans : (C)

87. The author found that man’s reply quite startling because—
(A) A statistical expert cannot be a budding scientist
(B) A budding artist cannot be a statistical expert
(C) Graphics is still a rare art form and he was learning it while travelling in a bus
(D) The fact that “a man’s face can be analysed as thousands of squares” was a strange concept
Ans : (D)

88. From the passage we gather that—
(A) The author is very inquisitive
(B) The author tries to poke his nose in other people’s business
(C) The author is interested in mathematical notations
(D) The author wants to talk to fellow passengers in the bus
Ans : (A)

Passage–III
With the inevitable growth of specialization I see the universities facing two great dangers. First, it is very easy to get so involved in the technical details of education that the object of education is lost. And secondly, in an effort to condition a university to the needs of its students and to the needs of the State it may lose its power to make or mould those students into responsible men, capable of thinking for themselves and capable of expressing the results of their thoughts to others.

89. The author calls growth of specialization ‘inevitable’. Which one of the following statements is likely to be the most correct reason for this inevitability ?
(A) Universities give grants only to do specialised work in different disciplines
(B) The professors and researchers in universities are competent only for specialized work
(C) Specialization helps economic growth of the nation
(D) In an age of science and technology specialization becomes necessary
Ans : (D)

90. Which one of the following statements most correctly suggests the central theme of the passage ?
(A) The aim of education is specialization
(B) The aim of education is to mould the youth to work for the State
(C) The aim of education is to make the youth capable of independent thought and expression
(D) The aim of education is to enable the youth to earn a comfortable living
Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following statements most correctly suggests the warning implied in the passage ?
(A) University education should not be concerned with technical details
(B) Universities should not subordinate themselves to the interests of the State
(C) Universities should be concerned only with the needs of students
(D) Universities should not go in for any specialization
Ans : (B)

Passage–IV
One December night, a family had gathered around their fireside and piled it high with wood gathered from mountain streams and ruins of great trees that had come falling down the mountain sides. The fire roared and brightened the room with its light. The faces of the father and mother had a quiet gladness; the children laughed; the oldest daughter was the picture of happiness at seventeen; and the aged grandmother who sat sewing in the warmest place was the picture of happiness grown old.

92. The firewood had been—
(A) Brought
(B) Stolen
(C) Collected
(D) Found
Ans : (C)

93. The parents looked—
(A) Serene
(B) Cheerful
(C) Gloomy
(D) Dull
Ans : (B)

94. The oldest daughter looked—
(A) Stupid
(B) Glad
(C) Intelligent
(D) Mournful
Ans : (B)

Passage–V
The unpleasant feeling passed and she glanced guardedly up at him. He was walking unmarked in moonlight, innocent of her reaction to him. She felt then – this thought had come to her before – that there might be more to him than she had imagined. She felt ashamed she had never thanked him for the help he had given her father.

95. She glanced at him when—
(A) He walked alone and unnoticed in moonlight
(B) She was sure that she was not being noticed
(C) Her reactions did not have any effect on him
(D) The unpleasant feeling passed
Ans : (A)

96. Her unpleasant feeling passed when—
(A) He did not take any notice of her
(B) The moonlight was beautiful
(C) She realized her sense of shame
(D) She looked carefully at him
Ans : (A)

97. She was ashamed because—
(A) She was spying on him
(B) There was more to him than she had imagined
(C) A recurring thought came back to her
(D) She had never thanked him for his help to her father
Ans : (D)

Passage–VI
As I slung my pack onto my shoulders a big mosquito thudded against my cheek. There had been a few through the day, but it was early in the season – the ice had gone out just two weeks before – and I had scarcely noticed them. But now as I would down the ridge, the last breeze faded, and they were on me. Rising in clouds from the soggy tundra, they pelted against my face. I reached in my pocket for the repellent, and came up empty.

98. The traveller could not feel the breeze because—
(A) The mosquito had bitten him
(B) He was at the foot of the ridge
(C) There was no ice on the mountain
(D) There was no breeze on the tundra mountain
Ans : (C)

99. The traveller carried with him—
(A) Mosquito repellent
(B) A pack of food
(C) A sling
(D) A back-pack
Ans : (D)

100. When he was in the arctic, the time of the year was—
(A) Middle of winter
(B) Early autumn
(C) Early spring
(D) Middle of summer
Ans : (C)

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
Directions—(For the 20 items which follow) In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled, P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and indicate your correct sequence accordingly.

Exmaple—‘Z’ has been solved for you.
Z. It is well-known that
P. the effect
Q. is very bad
R. on children
S. of cinema.
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P S R Q
(B) S P Q R
(C) S R P Q
(D) Q S R P

Explanation—The proper way of writing the sentence is “It is wellknown that the effect of cinema on children is very bad.” This is indicated by the sequence P S R Q and so (A) is the correct answer.

101. He found the house
P. and knocked at
Q. without any difficulty
R. the door
S. twice
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P Q R S
(B) P R S Q
(C) Q P S R
(D) Q P R S
Ans : (D)

102. A good garden,
P. should display
Q. round about a huge building or palace
R. laid out on a magnificent scale
S. fresh beauties every month
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P Q R S
(B) P S Q R
(C) R Q P S
(D) R P Q S
Ans : (C)

103. When a spider has a meal,
P. its next meal,
Q. until it has
R. to last for many months
S. it eats enough
The correct sequence should be—
(A) Q P S R
(B) S R Q P
(C) S Q P R
(D) Q P R S
Ans : (B)

104. Mother tongue is
P. for the development
Q. as natural
R. of man’s mind
S. as mother’s milk
The correct sequence should be—
(A) S R P Q
(B) P Q S R
(C) S R Q P
(D) Q S P R
Ans : (D)

105. P. The year
Q. that has just ended
R. has proved to be disastrous
S. for my uncle’s family
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P R S Q
(B) P Q R S
(C) P S R Q
(D) S P R Q
Ans : (B)

106. When I look back on my life
P. I find it hard to believe
Q. which has been eventful
R. despite what cynics say
S. that it is an illusion
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P S Q R
(B) P Q S R
(C) Q R S P
(D) Q P S R
Ans : (D)

107. Guards often use
P. to search for cavities
Q. metal probing rods
R. which they push
S. through the ground
The correct sequence should be—
(A) S Q R P
(B) Q R S P
(C) S R Q P
(D) Q S P R
Ans : (B)

108. I realized
P. more than ever
Q. and how we lived and worked
R. how cut off we were from our people
S. and agitated in a little world apart from them
The correct sequence should be—
(A) Q S P R
(B) S Q R P
(C) P R Q S
(D) R S Q P
Ans : (C)

109. Medical practice
P. in recent years
Q. has changed so radically
R. you only get specialists in a variety of fields
S. that you can no longer find a good general practitioner
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P S Q R
(B) Q P S R
(C) S P R Q
(D) P Q R S
Ans : (B)

110. If everything
P. will be a great success
Q. the closing function
R. we are sure
S. goes on well
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P Q R S
(B) S R Q P
(C) P R Q S
(D) S Q P R
Ans : (B)

111. P. With an idea to reach the deprived child
Q. by the United Nations
R. the year 1979 has been declared as
S. the International Year of the Child
The correct sequence should be—
(A) R S P Q
(B) R S Q P
(C) P R S Q
(D) P Q R S
Ans : (B)

112. The gardener
P. with a little brown moustache
Q. a short fellow
R. and sharp little brown eyes
S. tiptoed into the room
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P Q R S
(B) Q P R S
(C) Q P S R
(D) Q S R P
Ans : (B)

113. If you have something interesting
P. express it clearly
Q. to write about
R. simply and
S. with the human touch
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P Q S R
(B) S P R Q
(C) R S Q P
(D) Q P R S
Ans : (D)

114. One cloudless morning
P. towards the valley
Q. the pilots flew off together
R. of the farmer’s house
S. in close formation
The correct sequence should be—
(A) Q S P R
(B) S Q P R
(C) P Q S R
(D) R Q P S
Ans : (A)

115. When he had ridden
P. to the end of his mad little journey
Q. in front of his rocking horse
R. he climbed down and stood
S. staring fixedly into its lowered face
The correct sequence should be—
(A) Q R P S
(B) S Q P R
(C) P R Q S
(D) P S R Q
Ans : (C)

116. The meeting
P. if Mr. Rai
Q. would have been over on time
R. with his long financial report
S. did not hold us up
The correct sequence should be—
(A) Q R P S
(B) S P R Q
(C) Q P S R
(D) P R S Q
Ans : (C)

117. The long gruelling hours
P. had finally paid off
Q. on drawing after drawing,
R. working tirelessly
S. painting after painting
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P R Q S
(B) R Q S P
(C) Q S R P
(D) R P Q S
Ans : (B)

118. For us
P. before this Monday
Q. to complete this work
R. and it should not be delayed
S. is very important
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P Q R S
(B) Q P S R
(C) R S P Q
(D) Q S P R
Ans : (B)

119. When the
P. the party realized that
Q. elections were over
R. in the assembly
S. it had lost its majority
The correct sequence should be—
(A) P S Q R
(B) Q P S R
(C) Q R P S
(D) P Q R S
Ans : (B)

120. If
P. you must arm yourself so
Q. before starting a war
R. that the enemy may think twice
S. you want peace
The correct sequence should be—
(A) S P R Q
(B) P R Q S
(C) R Q S P
(D) P R S Q
Ans : (A)