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Reasoning Model paper For Food Corporation of India FCI Management Trainee (General/Depot)

Test of Reasoning: Sample Question paper For FCI MT Exam
1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)

2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)

3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)

4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)

5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)

6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)

7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)

8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)

9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)

10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)

12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)

13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)

14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.

15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)

16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)

17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)

19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)

20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)

21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)

22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)

23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)

24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)

25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)

26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)

27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)

28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)

29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)

30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)

31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?

(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)

32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)

35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)

36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)

37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)

38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)

39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)

40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)

41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)
42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)

43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)

44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)

45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)

46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)

47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)

48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)

49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)

50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)

FCI General Accounting and Finance Sample Solved Model Paper MT (Accounts)

FCI Food Corporation of India test for MT (Accounts) consists of 90 questions on General Accounting and Finance. FCI MT accounts practice paper.

1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at—
(A) Cost price
(B) Market price
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
Ans. (D)

2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of—
(A) Over statement of assets
(B) Understatement of assets
(C) Understatement of liabilities
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts
Ans. (B)

3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to—
(A) Accrual concept
(B) Entity concept
(C) Dual aspect concept
(D) Money measurement concept
Ans. (D)

4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in—
(A) Landlords a/c
(B) P&L a/c
(C) Balance sheet assets side
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
Ans. (C)

5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on—
(A) Cash price of the asset
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset
(C) Higher of the two
(D) Lower of the two
Ans. (A)

6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under—
(A) Asset accrued method
(B) Total cash price method
(C) Any of the two methods
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-—
(A) Rs. 16667
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 33333
Ans. (B)

8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at—
(A) Opening rate of exchange
(B) Closing rate of exchange
(C) Average rate of exchange
(D) Rate applicable to debtors
Ans. (B)

9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be—
(A) Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 3333
Ans. (A)

10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs.6000
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)

11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
(A) 5 partners
(B) 10 partners
(C) 20 partners
(D) Any number of partners
Ans. (B)

12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be—
(A) Debited to his capital a/c
(B) Credited to his drawing a/c
(C) Credited to his current a/c
(D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c
Ans. (A)

13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm—
(A) Interest at 6% p.a.
(B) Interest at 12% p.a.
(C) Interest at 15% p.a.
(D) No interest
Ans. (A)

14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be—
(A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4: 3 : 2: 1
(C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(A) 10:6:4
(B) 6:10:4
(C) 8:8:4
(D) 9:7:4
Ans. (D)

16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill—
(A) Rs.21000
(B) Rs.9000
(C) Rs. 15000
(D) Rs. 6000
Ans. (D)

17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of—
(A) Rs. 500000
(C) Rs. 800000
(B) Rs.600000
(D) Rs. 375000
Ans. (A)

18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c—
(A) Passage money
(B) Freight
(C) Primage
(D) Address commission
Ans. (D)

19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.—
(A) 1st April 1949
(B) 1st April 1991
(C) 1st April 1992
(D) 1st April 1956
Ans. (C)

20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in—
(A) Revenue Account
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of—
(A) Realisation
(B) Consistency
(C) Conservatism
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)

22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in—
(A) Lowering the profit
(B) Raising the profit
(C) Raising the tax liability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

23. Given,
Total assets turnover 4
Net Profits 10%
Total Assets Rs. 50000
Net profit will be—
(A) Rs. 15000
(B) Rs. 10000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs.20000
Ans. (D)

24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to-
(A) Board of directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing director
(D) Company secretary
Ans. (B)

25. Bonus shares means shares issued to—
(A) Workers
(B) Existing equity shareholders
(C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend
(D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest
Ans. (B)

26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification?
(A) Stock
(B) Plant
(C) Loose tools
(D) Goodwill
Ans. (D)

27. Cash from operations is equal to—
(A) Net profit + increase in current assets
(B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities
(C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities
(D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities
Ans. (C)

28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be-
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 40000
Ans. (A)

29. Which of the following is not a current liability?
(A) Bank overdraft
(B) Redeemable debentures
(C) Account payable
(D) Provision for bad debts
Ans. (B)

30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to—
(A) 2%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
Ans. (B)

31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory?
(A) 2: 1
(C) 1: 1
(B) 1: 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Herzberg
(C) McGregor
(D) Maslow
Ans. (B)

33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Free rein
(D) Participative
Ans. (B)

34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called—
(A) Management
(B) Coordination
(C) Planning
(D) Decision-making
Ans. (C)

35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called—
(A) Line organisation
(B) Chain organisation
(C) Command organisation
(D) All the above
Ans. (D)

36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called—
(A) Management by objective
(B) Management by exception
(C) Management by crisis
(D) Management by choice
Ans. (B)

37. Under delegation of authority—
(A) Authority is given to subordinates
(B) Authority flows from top to bottom
(C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability
(D) All the above happens
Ans. (D)

38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called—
(A) Job specification
(B) Job evaluation
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job description
Ans. (C)

39. In case of a private company—
(A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares
(B) The number of members is restricted
(C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)

40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than—
(A) 1 Company
(B) 7 Companies
(C) 15 Companies
(D) 20 Companies
Ans. (C)

41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a—
(A) Public company
(B) Any type of company
(C) Private company
(D) Private company subsidiary to a public company
Ans. (C)

42. Henry Fayol is known for—
(A) Scientific management
(B) Rationalisation
(C) Industrial psychology
(D) Principles of managements
Ans. (D)

43. The principle of unity of command’ implies—
(A) Unity of thought and action
(B) Unity amongst subordinates
(C) Instructions from staff authority
(D) Instructions from line authority
Ans. (D)

44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be—
(A) 1:1
(B) 0.5: 1
(C) 0.4: 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)

45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called—
(A) Net working capital
(B) Gross working capital
(C) Deferred liabilities
(D) Net worth
Ans. (D)

46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be—
(A) Rs. 39000
(B) Rs. 40000
(C) Rs.41000
(D) Rs. 44000
Ans. (A)

47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as—
(A) An asset
(B) A liability
(C) An expense
(D) A revenue
Ans. (B)

48. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’?
(A) Verification of assets
(B) Internal check
(C) Vouching
(D) Internal audit
Ans. (C)

49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be—
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs.200
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 100
Ans. (D)

50. Sale of long term investments indicates—
(A) A change in current assets
(B) Application of funds
(C) Increase in working capital
(D) Source of funds
Ans. (D)

51. Net working capital refers to—
(A) Current assets
(B) Current assets minus current liabilities
(C) Equity share capital minus fixed assets
(D) Retired earnings.
Ans. (B)

52. If sales Rs. 6000 gross profit is 1/3 on cost, purchases are R. 4900 and the closing stock is Rs. 900, the opening stock will be—
(A) Rs.400
(B) Rs.500
(C) Rs. 1100
(D) Rs. 2000
Ans. (B)

53. The primary objective of audit is—
(A) Detection and prevention of frauds
(B) Detection and prevention of errors
(C) Detection of frauds and errors
(D) To ensure the final accounts and statements exhibit true and fair position of business
Ans. (D)

54. ‘An auditor is a watch dog and not a blood hound’. This was observed in case of— (A) London oil storage company
(B) Kingston cotton Mills Limited
(C) London General Bank
(D) Delightful Cigarette Company Ltd.
Ans. (B)

55. If two or more sugar mills combine together, it is known—
(A) Horizontal combination
(B) Vertical combination
(C) Lateral combination
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)

56. Surrender value is related to—
(A) Marine insurance
(B) General insurance
(C) Life insurance
(D) Fire insurance
Ans. (C)

57. Over capitalisation refer to—
(A) Excess of capital
(B) Excess rate of dividend payment, on shares
(C) Over estimation of rate of capitalisation
(D) Raising more capital than is warranted by its earning power
Ans. (D)

58. Motivation refers to—
(A) Coordinate the people
(B) Guide the working people
(C) Terrorise the people
(D) Inducing people to work willing by
Ans. (D)

59. Which of the following is not a barrier in communication—
(A) Fear and distrust
(B) Affection
(C) Perception
(D) Noise
Ans. (B)

60. “Management is an art of getting things done through and with formally organised group.” This definition has been by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Harod Koontz
(D) F. W. Taylor
Ans. (C)

61. Foreign exchange for import of goods is sanctioned by—
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) State Bank
(D) Ministry of commerce
Ans. (B)

62. The cost of a machine having a span of life of 5 years is Rs. 10000. It has a scrap value of Rs. 1000. The amount of depreciation in the first year under the sum of year’s digit method will be—
(A) Rs. 1600
(B) Rs. 1800
(C) Rs. 2000
(D) Rs. 3000
Ans. (D)

63. Given:
Gross profit Rs. 60000
Gross profit ratio: 20%
Debtor’s velocity 2 months
The amount of debtors will be—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 50000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs.200000
Ans. (B)

64. Premium on issue of shares can be used for—
(A) Issue of Bonus shares
(B) Payment of Dividends
(C) Payment of operating expenses
(D) Redemption of debentures
Ans. (A)

65. If current ratio is 25, quick ratio (1) 5 and net working capital Rs. 15000. This value of inventory will be—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs. 15000
(C) Rs. 37500
(D) Rs. 52500
Ans. (A)

66. Unclaimed dividend is shown on the liability side of the balance sheet under the heading—
(A) Revenue and surplus
(B) Provisions
(C) Current liabilities
(D) Miscellaneous items
Ans. (C)

67. Accounting standards in India are prescribed by—
(A) Company Law Board
(B) Institute of charted accountants of India
(C) Institute of coat and works accountants of India
(D) Indian standard Board
Ans. (B)

68. Which of the following is not correct—
(A) Purchase + Opening stock—Cost of goods sold = Closing stock
(B) Opening stock + Purchases — Closing stock = Cost of goods sold
(C) Closing stock + Cost of goods sold — Purchases = Opening stock
(D) Cost of goods sold — Closing stock + Purchases = Opening stock
Ans. (D)

69. A company bought assets worth Rs. 360000 and in lieu issued debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 10%. The number of debentures issued will be—
(A) 3000
(B) 3600
(C) 3960
(D) 400
Ans. (D)

70. A person got insured his goods worth Rs. 10000 for Rs. 80QO against fire. Loss by fire to him was Rs. 9000. He can claim—
(A) Rs. 8000
(B) Rs. 9000
(C) Rs. 10000
(D) Rs. 7200
Ans. (D)

71. The data obtained from a newspaper are—
(A) Primary data
(B) Secondary data
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

72. Current Ratio of a firm is 3: 1 and working capital is Rs. 60000. What will be the amount of current Assets—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs90000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs. 180000
Ans. (B)

73. The income from that house property is taxable under the head “Income from House property”.
(A) The assessee has ownership on that house
(B) The assessee uses that house for his business
(C) The assessee himself lives in that house
(D) The assessee has let out that house on rent for residence
Ans. (A)

74. Following is the deduction in respect of repair under the head of income from house property—
(A) 25% of Annual Value
(B) 30% of Net Annual Value
(C) 1/5 of Annual Value
(D) 1/5 of Net Annual Value
Ans. (B)

75. Single entry system can not be maintained by—
(A) Sole proprietorship
(B) Partnership concerns
(C) Joint stock company
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)

76. Cash account will not be affected by—
(A) Cash paid to creditors
(B) Discount received
(C) Cash sales
(D) Cash received from debtors
Ans. (B)

77. Maximum standard Deduction for employees getting gross salary not more than Rs.
100000 is allowed—
(A) Rs. 20000
(B) Rs. 25000
(C) Rs. 30000
(D) Rs. 33000
Ans. (C)

78. Tax audit is compulsory in case of a person carrying on business whose gross receipt) turnover/sales and exceeds—
(A) Rs. 50 Lakhs
(B) Rs. 40 Lakhs
(C) Rs. l0 Lakhs
(D) Rs. 25 Lakhs
Ans. (B)

79. Mr. Rastogi of Meerut was declared insolvent. One of his liabilities related to one months rent due to his landlord. This liability will be treated as—
(A) Preferential Creditor
(B) Partly Secured Creditor
(C) Fully Secured Creditor
(D) Unsecured Creditor
Ans. (A)

80. When two or more companies liquidate to form a new company. It is called—
(A) Amalgamation
(B) Absorption
(C) Reconstruction
(D) Purchase of Business
Ans. (A)

81. A, B and C are partners in a firm. If D is to be admitted to the firm as a new partner—
(A) Old firm has to be dissolved
(B) Old partnership has to be dissolved
(C) Both the old firm and the old partnership have to be dissolved
(D) No need to dissolve either firm or the partnership
Ans. (D)

82. Remington sold one typewriter to Ramesh Chandra under installment purchase system on 1st January 1996, payment for which was to be made as under—
On 01.01.1996 - Rs. 3000
On 31.12.1996 - Rs. 1700
On 31.12.1997 - Rs. 3600
On 31.12.1998 - Rs. 2300
On 31.12.1999 - Rs. 1100
Interest at 10% p.a. is included in each installment. The total interest charged amount to-
(A) Rs.2100
(B) Rs. 1950
(C) Rs. 1800
(D) Rs. 1700
Ans. (B)

83. The liquidator of a company is entit1edio a remuneration of 2% on assets realised, and 3% on the amount distributed to unsecured creditors. The assets realised Rs. 100000 including cash balance of Rs. 3000. Amount available for distribution to unsecured creditors before paying liquidators remui4eration was Rs. 46350 liquidator’s remuneration will be—
(A) Rs.3100
(C) Rs. 3290
(B) Rs.3140
(D) Rs. 3350
Ans. (C)

84. EXIM Bank was established on—
(A) 1st Dec 1984
(B) 1st June 1985
(C) 1st Jan 1982
(D) 1st July 1980
Ans. (C)

85. For capital gain being long term capital gain, an assessee should retain the assets for a period of—
(A) 40 months
(B) 36 months
(C) More than 36 months
(D) Less than 36 months
Ans. (C)

86. The salary received by a member of parliament is—
(A) Exempt from Tax
(B) Taxable under the head of salary
(C) Taxable under the head of other sources
(D) Taxable under the lead of business
Ans. (C)

87. For the purpose of income tax it is necessary for agriculture income that—
(A) Land should be used for agricultural activities
(B) Land should be used for godown
(C) Land should be used for irrigation
(D) None of above
Ans. (A)

88. Depreciation is allowed on—
(A) Tangible Assets
(B) Current Assets
(C) Fixed Assets
(D) Intangible Assets
Ans. (C)

89. When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited by—
(A) Nominal value of forfeited shares
(B) Paid up amount of forfeited shares
(C) Called up amount on forfeited shares
(D) Forfeited amount of shares
Ans. (C)

90. The term ‘POIM’ for the four functions of management. Planning, organisation, integration and measuring was given by.—
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) Harold Smiddy
(C) Tanon Brown
(D) Peter F. Drucker
Ans. (B)

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General Awareness Sample paper

1. In which country did the first Marxist revolution take place?
(A) Germany
(B) Italy
(C) Great Britain
(D) Russia
Ans. (D)

2. As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit prescribed for the number of members in the Legislative Assembly of a State?
(A) 350 members
(B) 400 members
(C) 450 members
(D) 500 members
Ans. (D)

3. Due to the leadership and success in which one of the following did Vallabhbhai Patel get the title of ‘Sardar’?
(A) Kheda Satyagraha
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Bardoli Satyagraha
(D) Civil Disobedience Movement
Ans. (C)

4. The independent nation Montenegro originated out of the dissolution of which one
of the following?
(A) Bulgaria
(B) Czechoslovakia
(C) Romania
(D) Yugoslavia
Ans. (D)

5. Who among the following appoints the Judges of a High Court?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Governor of the State concerned
(D) The Union Minister of Law
Ans. (A)

6. Who of the following started Swaraj Party?
(A) Bipin Chandra Pal and Rajendra Prasad
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal and Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru
(D) C. R. Das and Madan Mohan Malaviya
Ans. (C)

7. Who of the following was associated with the August Offer?
(A) Lord Wavell
(B) Lord Irwin
(C) Lord Linlithgow
(D) Lord Mountbatten
Ans. (C)

8. Which one among the following was fought earliest?
(A) Battle of Ambur
(B) Battle of Buxar
(C) Battle of Plassey
(D)Battle of Wandiwash
Ans. (A)

9. During Aurangzeb’s reign, whose duty was it to see that people lived their lives in accordance with the Sharia?
(A) Ahadis
(C) Muhtasibs
(B) Mansabdars
(D) Walashuhis
Ans. (C)

10. Gautam Buddha delivered his first sermon at which one of the following places?
(A) Kushinagar
(B) Sarnath
(C) Bodh Gaya
(D) Lumbini
Ans. (B)

11. Which is the rarest naturally occurring element on earth?
(A) Gold
(B) Antimony
(C) Germanium
(D) Astatine
Ans. (D)

12. Which one of the following countries produces Phalcon air-borne warning and control systems (AWACS)?
(A) India
(B) Israel
(C) Russia
(D) USA
Ans. (B)

13. Into how many categories are the Fundamental Rights classified in the Constitution of India?
(A) Five
(B) Six
(C) Seven
(D) Eight
Ans. (B)

14. Who appoints the District Judges?
(A) Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State
(B) Governor of the concerned State
(C) Public Service Commission of the concerned State
(D) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Ans. (B)

15. The Hyde Act is related to which of the following?
(A) An agreement between India and Israel for supply of defense equipment
(B) An agreement between India and Canada for supply of uranium
(C) An agreement between India and the USA for civil nuclear cooperation
(D) An agreement between India and China for flood control
Ans. (C)

16. How is international personality Zadie Smith well-known as?
(A) Environmentalist
(B) Human Rights activist
(C) Litterateur
(D) Musician
Ans. (C)

17. Which of the following enzymes is produced by the salivary glands?
(A) Pepsin
(B) Ptyalin
(C) Rennin
(D) Trypsin
Ans. (B)

18. The Victoria Falls in Africa is located on which river?
(A) Zaire
(B) Orange
(C) Zambezi
(D) Niger
Ans. (C)

19. Mt. Marapi is located on which one of the islands?
(A) Java
(B) Sumatra
(C) Borneo
(D) Celebes
Ans. (B)

20. When it is 12 Noon at Allahabad, the time at Wellington (New Zealand) would be close to which one of the following?
(A) 4:30 PM of the same day
(B) 4:30 PM of the previous day
(C) 6:30 PM of the same day
(D) 6:30 PM of the previous day
Ans. (C)

21. Consider the following statements:
1. In tropical grassland regions, rainfall mainly occurs in the short summer season with a long dry season.
2. In Mediterranean region, the winter rainfall is caused by the passage of cyclones in the westerly wind belt which lies over this area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (C)

22 Which one of the following crops increases soil fertility by adding nitrates to soil?
(A) Black-gram
(B) Cotton
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Tomato
Ans. (A)

23. Which National Highway connects Delhi and Mumbai?
(A) NH 6
(B) NH 8
(C) NH 10
(D) NH 12
Ans. (B)

24. Which one among the following peaks is the highest?
(A) Dhaula Giri
(B) Namcha Barwa
(C) Nanda Devi
(D) Nanga Parvat
Ans. (A)

25. From West to East, which one of the following is the correct sequence of Hills?
(A) Mahadeo Hills — Mailkala Hills — Garhjat Hills
(B) Mahadeo Hills — Garhjat Hills — Maikala Hills
(C) Maikala Hills — Mahadeo Hills — Garhjat Hills
(D) Maikala Hills — Garhjat Hills — Mahadeo Hills
Ans. (A)

26. Haridwar is well-known for which one of the following industries?
(A) Fertilizers
(B) Cement
(C) Heavy Electricals
(D) Silk Textiles
Ans. (C)

27. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which one of the following?
(A) Assam
(B) Manipur
(C) Mizoram
(D) Nagaland
Ans. (C)

28. Injurious ultraviolet radiation are mostly prevented from reaching the land surface as these are absorbed mostly by which one of the following?
(A) Stratosphere
(B) Troposphere
(C) Ionosphere
(D) Mesosphere
Ans. (A)

29. In which of the following Hills is tea cultivated?
(A) Maikala Hills
(B) Nallamalai Hills
(C) Nilgiri Hills
(D) Shivalik Hills
Ans. (C)

30. In which one of the following areas is monsoon climate found?
(A) Pacific Coast of Columbia
(B) South-Eastern United States
(C) Southern Part of South Africa
(D) Central California
Ans. (C)

31. Among the following sedimentary rocks, which one is of organic origin?
(A) Gypsum
(B) Limestone
(C) Nitre
(D) Rock salt
Ans. (B)

32. Who among the following chooses the Speaker of the House of People?
(A) The Prime Minister of India
(B) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(C) The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
(D) The House of People
Ans. (D)

33. What is the number of Judges (including Chief Justice) in the Supreme Court of India
as provided in the Constitution of India?
(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 26
(D) 28
Ans. (C)

34. How is Leila Seth known as?
(A) First Woman Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission
(B) First Woman Election Commissioner of India
(C) First Woman Chief Justice of a High Court in India
(D) First Woman Governor of a State in India
Ans. (C)

35. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins causes increased loss of calcium ion in urine?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B5
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D
Ans. (D)

36. Among the following, who was the Speaker in two Lok Sabha?
(A) Rabi Ray
(B) Shivraj Patil
(C) P. A. Sangma
(D) G. M. C. Balayogi
Ans. (D)

37. Which one of the following is mixed with petrol by th e Government of India in its nationwide programme of blended petrol?
(A) Butanol
(B) Ethanol
(C) Methanol
(D) Propanol
Ans. (B)

38. In which one of the following One-Day Cricket World Cups, did India lose in the
Finals?
(A) World Cup, 1992
(B) World Cup, 1996
(C) World Cup, 1999
(D) World Cup, 2003
Ans. (D)

39. Where were the Olympic Games, 2004 held?
(A) Madrid
(B) Buenos Aires
(C) Athens
(D) Rome
Ans. (C)

40. How is Asafa Powell well known as?
(A) Swimmer
(B) Football Player
(C) Boxer
(D) 100 m Sprinter
Ans. (D)

41. Who of the following helped Humayun in recovering his kingdom?
(A) Bahadur Shah of Gujarat
(B) Shah Hussain Arghun of Sind
(C) Shah Tahmasp of Persia
(D) Maldeo of Bikaner
Ans. (C)

42. Who was the Governor-General on the East India Company when the Revolt of 1857 took place?
(A) Lord Bentick
(B) Lord Hastings
(C) Lord Dalhousie
(D) Lord Canning
Ans. (D)

43. During the Indian freedom struggle, what was the purpose of the Simon Commission?
(A) To inquire into events related to Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(B) To look into the working of the Government of India Act, 1919
(C) To suggest strategies for promoting Western education in India
(D) To design a Constitution for India within the framework of ‘Dominion Status’
Ans. (B)

44. What was the name of the organization founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in London to influence the British public opinion in India’s favour?
(A) Indian Association
(B) Indian League
(C) British Indian Association
(D) East India Association
Ans. (D)

45. Among the following who was not a co-founder of NAM?
(A) Gamal Abdel Nasser
(B) Josip Broz Tito
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Yasser Arafat
Ans. (D)

46. Which one of the following countries was hit by Typhoon Saomi, the strongest storm to hit that country in the last 50 years?
(A) Australia
(B) China
(C) Malaysia
(D) Thailand
Ans. (B)

47. Which of the following is true in the case of Ellen Johnson Sirleaf?
(A) First woman who completed non-stop flight around the globe
(B) An African female human rights activist in the Darfur region
(C) Female scientist who deciphered the complete human genome sequence
(D) Africa’s first elected female Head of State
Ans. (D)

48. Which one of the following Committees/Authorities is associated with the
recommendation of the repeal of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act?
(A) Justice Jeevan Reddy Committee
(B) Rajender Saccar Committee
(C) R. S. Pathak Inquiry Authority
(D) U. C. Bannerjee Committee
Ans. (A)

49. Among the following eminent citizens, who is a renowned chemist?
(A) S. N. Subbarao
(B) C. N. R. Rao
(C) Rani Abhay Singh
(D) Rajender Singh
Ans. (B)

50. In which country does Basque separatist group operate?
(A) Ireland
(B) Italy
(C) Spain
(D) Turkey
Ans. (C)

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Indian history Solved For Competitive Exams

Indian history Solved For Competitive Exams
Solved history MCQ for job Exams
History for jobs in MCQ Format India
1. Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj?
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B). Swami Dayanand Sarsäwati
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(D) Ranadey
Ans. (C)

2. Who said the words ‘Go to Vedas’?
(A) Swami Dayanand
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Bhagat Singh
(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Ans. (A)

3. Who wrote the famous book ‘Hindu View of Life’ ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) Arundhati Roy
Ans. (B)

4. Whose name is associated with Basic Education?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Ans. (C)

5. Who among the following first received the Bharat Ratna Award?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) C. V. Raman
(C) B. C. Roy
(D) Zakir Husain
Ans. (B)

6. Which one of the following was the principal article of food of the Indus Val1ey people?
(A) Wheat
(B) Fish
(C) Meat
(D) Rice
Ans. (C)

7. Fahien came to India during the reign of—
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Ashoka
(C) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(D) Harshavardhan
Ans. (C)

8. Large bathroom known as ‘Great Bath’ is linked with—
(A) Harappa
(B) Mohen-Jo-Daro
(C) Kalibanga
(D) Lothal
Ans. (B)

9. Megasthenes was the ambassador of—
(A) Alexander
(B) Darius
(C) The Greek
(D) Seleucus
Ans. (D)

10. Where did Gautam Buddha preached his first sermons?
(A) Lumbini

(B) Bodh Gaya

(C) Sarnath

(D) Kushinagar
Ans. (C)

11. The famous Peacock throne was built during the period of—
(A) Jahangir
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Aurangzeb
(D) Akbar
Ans. (B)

12. The tomb of which Mughal emperor is not in India?
(A) Babur
(B) Humayun
(C) Jahangir
(D) Akbar
Ans. (A)

13. In the freedom movement of India, the year 1930 is associated with—
(A) Dandi March
(B) Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy
(C) Partition of Bengal
(D) Chauri-Chaura Incident
Ans. (A)

14. Who among the following could not be captured by the British in 1857?
(A) Bahadur Shah-II
(B) Tantia Tope
(C) Nana Saheb
(D) Mangal Pandey
Ans. (C)

15. Which of the following is matched wrongly?
(A) Lord Ripon — Hunter Commission
(B) Lord Hastings — Pindari War
(C) Lord Curzon — Partition of Bengal
(D) William Bentinck — Doctrine of Lapse
Ans. (D)

16. ‘Panchatantra’ was written by—
(A) Kalidas
(B) Bana Bhatt
(C) Vishnu Sharma
(D) Ashwaghosh
Ans. (C)

17. The prose commentaries attached to the Vedas are called—
(A) Smriti
(B) Puran
(C) Brahman
(D) Upanishad
Ans. (C)

18. Which of the following is the holy Book of Sikhs?
(A) Adi Granth Saheb
(B) Guru Granth Saheb
(C) Basant di var
(D) Janam Sakhi
Ans. (B)

19. Who was the author of the Gitanjali?
(A) Ban Bhatta
(B) Mahadevi Verma
(C) R. N. Tagore
(D) Tulsidas
Ans. (C)

20. Out of the following, which city was built by Firoz Tughlaq—
(A) Firozpur
(B) Agra
(C) Faridabad
(D) Tughlaqabad
Ans. (A)

21. Which ruler started ‘Deen-e-Ilahi’?
(A) Babar
(B) Humayun
(C) Akbar
(D) Shahjahan
Ans. (C)

22. Who got the Widow Remarriage Act passed?
(A) Canning
(B) Dalhousie
(C) Auckland
(D) William Bentinck
Ans. (A)

23. ‘Mansabdars’ during the Mughal period were—
(A) Landlords and Zamindars
(B) Revenue Collectors
(C) Officials of the State
(D) Militia men
Ans. (C)

24. Who was the Prime Minister of U.K. (England) at the time of India’s Independence?
(A) Winston Churchill
(B) Clement Attlee
(C) Lord Mountbatten
(D) Ramsay McDonald
Ans. (B)

25. In 1931, Mahatma Gandhi signed a pact with—
(A) Lord Wavell
(B) Lord Curzon
(C) Lord Irwin
(D) Lord Canning
Ans. (C)

26. Indian Railways and Postal Services were started during the reign of—
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Lord Rippon
(C) Lord Canning
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (D)

27. The famous Pakistan resolution was passed at—
(A) Lahore
(B) Delhi
(C) Bombay
(D) Lucknow

28. Vasco-da-gama was the native of which country?
(A) Spain
(C) Portugal
(B) England
(D) France
Ans. (C)

29. What was ‘Kamagatamaru’?
(A) Secret agent of British Police
(B) Magazine of Gadar party
(C) Revolutionary Party of Indians in Britain
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)

30. Who was the founder of Aligarh Movement?
(A) Sami-ullah
(B) Wakar-ul-haq
(C) Agha Khan
(D) Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan
Ans. (D)

31. When was the first Census conducted in India?
(A) 1871
(C) 1891
(B) 1881
(D) 1901
Ans. (A)

32. Who was the author of ‘The Poverty of India’?
(A) Dadabhai Nauroji
(B) R.C. Dutta
(C) Karl Marx
(D) Becon
Ans. (A)

33. The purpose of Educational-system started by Macauley was—
(A) To educate the Indians
(B) Cultural development of Indians
(C) To prepare clerks for British Administration
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

34. When was India born as a Republic?
(A) 26th January, 1949
(B) 26th January, 1950
(C) 15th August, 1947
(D) 24th October, 1948
Ans. (B)

35. Who was Congress President during ‘Quiet India Movement’?
(A) U. N. Dhebar
(B) Pattabhisitaramyah
(C) Maulana Abul Klam Azad
(D) Acharya J.P. Kripalani
Ans. (C)

36. Which of the following is not matched?
(A) Non-Co-operation Movement—1920
(B) Quiet India Movement—1942
(C) Civil Disobedience Movement—1930
(D) Homerule Movement—1910
Ans. (D)

37. Who is credited with preparing the message issued under the headline ‘The Philosophy of Bomb’?
(A) Bhagat Singh
(B) Bhagawati Charan Vohra
(C) Sukhedev
(D) Yashpal
Ans. (B)

38. Which of the following revolutionaries was associated with ‘Indian Republic Army’ ?
(A) Sukhdev
(B) Loknath Baaul
(C) Rajguru
(D) Ashfaq Ullah Khan
Ans. (B)

39. Who among the following was not awarded death sentence in Kakori case?
(A) Ram Prasad Bismil
(B) Manmath Nath Gupta
(C) Rajendra Lahiri
(D) Ashfaq Ullah Khan
Ans. (B)
40. Which of the following is not included in four Vedas?
(A) Rig-Veda
(C) Atharvaveda
(B) Samaveda
(D) Ayurveda
Ans. (D)

41. Which one of the following is related to the Jain Dharma?
(A) Tripitaka
(B) Triguna
(C) Triratna
(D) Trimurti
Ans. (C)

42. The possible cause of decline of Indus Valley Civilization could be—
(A) Decreasing Fertility of land
(B) Sudden and frequent flood
(C) The coming of Aryans
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)

43. Charaka Samhita is related to which of the following?
(A) Art
(B) Law
(C) Statecraft
(D) Medicine
Ans. (D)

44. Who among the following is called the Indian Napoleon?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Samudragupta
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Sikandgupta
Ans. (B)

45. The Mauryan Capital city was—
(A) Prayag
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Vaishali
(D) Ujjain
Ans. (B)

45. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose proclaimed the provisional government to free India in 1943 at—
(A) Colombo
(C) Singapore
(B) Manila
(D) Rangoon
Ans. (C)

46. Alberuni the celebrated historian visited India with the armies of—
(A) Mahamud Ghazni
(B) Muhammad Ghori
(C) Chengiz Khan
(D) Nadir Shah
Ans. (A)

47. Who built Fatehpur Sikri?
(A) Babur
(B) Humayun
(C) Jahangir
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)

48. Who was the first woman ruler in India?
(A) Nurjahan
(B) Razia Sultana
(C) Chand Bibi
(D) Mumtaz Mahal
Ans. (B)

49. Which Guru created ‘Khalsa Panth’?
(A) Guru Gobind Singh
(B) Guru Arjun Dev
(C) Guru Har Govind
(D) Guru Tegh Bahadur
Ans. (A)

50. The ‘Chishti’ order was established by?
(A) Nizamuddin Aulia
(B) Abdul Chishti
(C) Moinuddin Chishti
(D) Furiduddin Masud
Ans. (C)

Kerala PSC Accountant Exam Provisional Answer Key

The Provisional Answer Key for Kerala PSC Accountant examination in the Kerala State Industrial Development Corporation Limited held on 6th May 2011 has been published by Kerala Public Service Commission. The Final Answer Key for examinations are usually published at a later date after the experts opinion on the valid complaints received from candidates within the stipulated time. Given below is the provisional answer key for Accountant exam in KSIDC.

Category No - 234/2010
Question Paper Code: 47/2011

Qn. No Question Booklet Alphacode
A Question Booklet Alphacode
B Question Booklet Alphacode
C Question Booklet Alphacode
D
1 D D C A
2 B B D B
3 A D A B
4 A C B D
5 A B C A
6 B C B B
7 C B D C
8 C C A D
9 D D C A
10 A A D B
11 D A D C
12 B B B D
13 D C A A
14 C D A B
15 B A A C
16 C B B B
17 B C C D
18 C D C A
19 D A D C
20 A B A D
21 A C D D
22 B D B B
23 C A D A
24 D D C A
25 A B B A
26 B C C B
27 C D B C
28 D A C C
29 A B D D
30 B C A A
31 C B A D
32 D A B B
33 A C C D
34 D D D C
35 B A A B
36 C B B C
37 D C C B
38 A D D C
39 B A A D
40 C A B A
41 B B C A
42 A B D B
43 C C A C
44 D C D D
45 A D B A
46 B D C B
47 C A D C
48 D B A D
49 A C B A
50 A D C B

RRB Chandigarh ASM Solved Paper

1. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 : 15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?

(A) 6 : 30

(B) 6 : 00

(C) 6 : 15

(D) 4 : 20

2. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?

(A) 24

(B) 23

(C) 22

(D) 25

3. If x means -, ÷ means +, + means ÷, – means x then find the value of 13 – 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100

(A) 1/760

(B) 76

(C) 176

(D) 186

4. Nivedita stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?

(A) 18 km

(B) 8 km

(C) 16 km

(D) 10 km

5. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?

(A) Karishma

(B) Kajal

(C) Ankita

(D) None of these

6. Radha and Saroj are ranked 10th and 16th respectively in a class of 37 students. What will be their ranks from the bottom in the class?

(A) 28th, 22nd

(B) 27th, 21st

(C) 28th, 20th

(D) 27th, 22nd

7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?

(A) 24

(B) 57

(C) 58

(D) 27

8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be—

(A) 8, 9, 8

(B) 9, 8, 8

(C) 10, 1, 6

(D) 10, 8, 9

9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?

(A) 978626

(B) 112144

(C) 447355

(D) 869756

10. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is—

(A) 11

(B) 13

(C) 17

(D) 9

11. On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is—

(A) 370

(B) 352

(C) 361

(D) 371

12. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him Rs. 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got Rs. 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform.

(A) Rs. 80

(B) Rs. 120

(C) Rs. 140

(D) Rs. 160

13. If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result?

(A) 2

(B) –2

(C) 0

(D) 1

14. Find the value of 50 × 8.

(A) 40

(B) 200

(C) 8

(D) 0

15. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is—

(A) 24/5 %

(B) 4 %

(C) 3 %

(D) 10/3 %

16. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the percentage decrease in volume is—

(A) 9%

(B) 10%

(C) 18%

(D) 900/109 %

17. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?

(A) 50/144 %

(B) 5%

(C) 1/12 %

(D) 5/24 %

18. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is—

(A) 50

(B) 100

(C) 150

(D) 200

19. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210°C to 380°C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?

(A) 28.50°C

(B) 270°C

(C) 300°C

(D) 320°C

20. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days; 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in—

(A) 10 days

(B) 15 days

(C) 12 days

(D) 7 days

21. Total area of 64 small squares of a chess board is 400cm. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chess board?

(A) 17 cm

(B) 20 cm

(C) 26 cm

(D) 23 cm

22. If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times. Then how many times will its circumference be increased?

(A) 2 times

(B) 1/3 times

(C) 9 times

(D) 3 times

23. A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station at some time. After 6 hours a goods trains leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is—

(A) 32 km/h

(B) 50 km/h

(C) 45 km/h

(D) 64 km/h

24. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is ratio between rate in still water and rate of current?

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 3 : 1

(C) 2 : 1

(D) 1 : 3

25. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?

(A) 5 minutes

(B) 17/3 times

(C) 45/7 minutes

(D) 5/4 minutes

26. Find the value of 0.0016—

(A) 0.4

(B) 0.04

(C) 0.8

(D) 4

27. By what number must 32 be multiplied to make it a perfect square?

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 2

Answers:

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (C)

28. Mr. Jagdish is confident __________ his success.

(A) about

(B) of

(C) for

(D) regarding

29. He persisted __________doing things in a manner in which he had been doing them.

(A) on

(B) at

(C) about

(D) in

30. An exhibition__________ the new trends in computer education was held in Delhi.

(A) into

(B) for

(C) of

(D) on

Directions (31-35): In the following questions choose the word that can be substituted for the given words.

31. A disease which spreads by contact

(A) infection

(B) contagious

(C) contiguous

(D) uxoring

32. A science which studies insects

(A) Entomology

(B) Epistemology

(C) Entymology

(D) Biology

Placement Papers and Model Papers

33. That which cann’t be corrected

(A) Ineligible

(B) Ineluctable

(C) Insortable

(D) Incorrigible

34. One who believes easily

(A) sedulous

(B) credible

(C) assiduous

(D) credulous

35. A speech made for first time

(A) simultaneous

(B) drawn

(C) extempore

(D) maiden

Direction (36-39): Write word which is most opposite in meaning of the given word.

36. Obstinate

(A) Hoary

(B) Amenable

(C) Tenable

(D) Tender

37. Pernicious

(A) Salutary

(B) Recondite

(C) Innocuous

(D) Disastrous

38. Radical

(A) Singular

(B) Unusual

(C) Normal

(D) Conservative

Placement Papers and Model Papers

39. Mention

(A) Impart

(B) Observe

(C) Attend

(D) Conceal

Direction (40-42): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word.

40. Sedentary

(A) Material

(B) Sluggish

(C) Slash

(D) Mischief

41. Pertinacious

(A) Stubborn

(B) Tremulous

(C) Stupid

(D) Stingy

42. Gregarious

(A) Clumsy

(B) Pugnacious

(C) Turbulent

(D) Saciable

43. In Rajasthan, Mount Abu, famous for Jain temples is known for—

(A) Abu temple

(B) Ranakpura temple

(C) Dilwara temple

(D) Marble temple

44. The United Nations Organisation was formed on—

(A) October 20, 1945

(B) November 11, 1944

(C) October 24, 1945

(D) June 26, 1946

45. In Vedic literature the meaning of the word ‘Nishk’ was ornament. It was used in Artharva Veda as—

(A) Weapon

(B) Agricultural implements

(C) Script

(D) Coin

46. The executive in India is directly responsible to the—

(A) President

(B) Judiciary

(C) People

(D) Legislature

47. The major producer of copper is—

(A) Kerala

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Orissa

(D) Madhya Pradesh

48. Boys scout and Girls Guide movements were formed by—

(A) Charles Andies

(B) General Ramphel

(C) John Quat

(D) Weden Powel

49. In history the Chola rulers are famous for which type of administration?

(A) Central

(B) Urban

(C) State

(D) Village administration

50. Chanakya was known by the name—

(A) Samudragupta

(B) Vishnugupta

(C) Shrigupta

(D) None of these

51. The largest reserve of crude oil is in the country—

(A) Iran

(B) Iraq

(C) Saudi Arab

(D) Kuwait

52. The Jainism propounded the complete knowledge as—

(A) Jin

(B) Ratna

(C) Kaivalya

(D) Nirvana

53. The rotational motion of earth is maximum at the—

(A) North pole

(B) Tropic of Capricorn

(C) Equator

(D) Tropic of cancer

54. Silicon dioxide is used in—

(A) Cement production

(B) Cutting hard precious metals

(C) Glass manufacture

(D) None of these

55. In which of the following chemical energy is converted into electrical energy?

(A) Dynamo

(B) Thermopile

(C) Battery

(D) Atom bomb

56. If the atmosphere is removed from the earth—

(A) Day will lengthen

(B) Night will lengthen

(C) Both will remain same

(D) Both will be equal

57. In Kushana period the maximum development was observed in the field of—

(A) Religion

(B) Art

(C) Literature

(D) Architecture

58. In rice production Indic is ranked in the world—

(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

59. The brightest star in the sky is—

(A) Proxima Centauri

(B) Bernard

(C) Nebula

(D) Cirius

60. The number of permanent member nations in the UN Security Council is—

(A) 10

(B) 5

(C) 7

(D) 15

Answers

28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C) 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)

61. From which mine diamond is extracted?

(A) Panna

(B) Golkunda

(C) Jaipur

(D) None of these

62. Like Poland in Europe which state in India is large?

(A) Bihar

(B) Orissa

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Maharashtra

63. The capital of Vijayanager empire. Hampi was situated on the bank of the river—

(A) Krishna

(B) Pennar

(C) Tungbhadra

(D) Godavari

64. The land shape formed at the drainage site of the Chanbal river is—

(A) Ramp

(B) Rift

(C) Delta

(D) None of these

65. Which of the following rivers passes through Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Sutlej

(B) Jhelum

(C) Ravi

(D) Chenab

66. Rigmies are related to—

(A) Asia

(B) Europe

(C) Africa

(D) America

67. Mettur dam is situated on the river—

(A) Krishna

(B) Cauvery

(C) Narmada

(D) Mahanadi

68. Most abundant element in maximum rocks is—

(A) Silicon

(B) Carbon

(C) Iron

(D) None of these

69. The old name of African country Ghana is—

(A) Abisinia

(B) Congo

(C) Gold Coast

(D) Tanganika

70. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?

(A) James Princep

(B) James Williams

(C) John Munro

(D) None of these

71. The foundation of Indian Vedanta philosophy is—

(A) Ram Charit Manas

(B) Mahabharat

(C) Puranas

(D) Upanishad

72. In which Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi women participated most?

(A) Quit India

(B) Non-cooperation

(C) Salt

(D) Bardoli

73. The noble gas is—

(A) Helium

(B) Oxygen

(C) Nitrogen

(D) Hydrogen

74. In which part of the Constitution, the separation of executive and judiciary has been described?

(A) Preamble

(B) Fundamental rights

(C) Directive principles of state policy

(D) Seventh schedule

75. Who administers the Union Territory?

(A) Council of Ministers

(B) Governor

(C) Former Governor

(D) President

76. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to—

(A) Surface tension

(B) Viscosity

(C) Gravity

(D) Atmospheric pressure

77. Which is not an electric resistant?

(A) Lac

(B) Glass

(C) Charcoal

(D) Ebonite

78. The first black Nobel prize winner of literature in the world is—

(A) Tom Morrison

(B) Luther King

(C) John King

(D) None of these

79. Which of the following planets has the highest period of revolution around the sun?

(A) Mercury

(B) Earth

(C) Mars

(D) None of these

80. The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is in—

(A) Geneva

(B) Manila

(C) Bangkok

(D) Jakarta

81. Which of the following elements is found in free state?

(A) Iodine

(B) Magnesium

(C) Sulphur

(D) Phosphorus

82. In which disease blood does not clot?

(A) Thrombosis

(B) Haemophilia

(C) Pneumonia

(D) None of these

83. The Ajanta caves are situated in—

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) None of these

84. National Codet Corps was established in—

(A) 1948

(B) 1946

(C) 1947

(D) 1950

Placement Papers and Model Papers

85. The first Yoga University was established at—

(A) Bodh Gaya

(B) Mumbai

(C) Monghyr

(D) Kolkata

86. The biggest glacier of India is—

(A) Siachin

(B) Yamanotri

(C) Chunhari

(D) Gangotri

87. The number of schedules in Indian Constitution is—

(A) 11

(B) 12

(C) 13

(D) None of these

88. The Commonwealth games were recently held in—

(A) Britain

(B) Canada

(C) Australia

(D) India

89. Which of the following did not come to India?

(A) Megasthanese

(B) Columbus

(C) Vasco De Gama

(D) Fahein

90. Double fault is related to—

(A) Footbal

(B) Rugby

(C) Tennis

(D) None of these

91. Which of these is the largest railway zone?

(A) Central Railway

(B) Southern Railway

(C) Eastern Railway

(D) Northern Railway

Placement Papers and Model Papers

92. Who is the Indian Mass Universe 2006 in india?

(A) Neha Kapoor

(B) Neha Dhupia

(C) Priyanka Sud

(D) None of these

93. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK?

(A) NUTL

(B) NTTJ

(C) NTTL

(D) LTRS

94. LO : PK : : IT : ?

(A) GT

(B) SH

(C) MN

(D) FU

95.Which of the following countries is the biggest producer of milk?

(A) Pakistan

(B) Australia

(C) America

(D) India

Answers

61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (A) 71. (D) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (A) 79. (D) 80. (B) 81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (C) 91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95 (D)

RRB Solved Paper: General Science

Q.1. Which of the following is not a bone in the human body?
(a) Sternum
(b) Humerus
(c) Pericardium
(d) Tibia
Ans. c

Q.2. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of
(a) two
(b) three
(c) five
(d) eight
Ans. a

Q3. Duodenum is situated
(a) at the uppermost part of the small intestine
(b) near the lungs
(c) in the brain
(d) at the tail end of the intestine
Ans. a

Q.4. The heart is covered by a membrane called
(a) Epidermis
(b) Dermis
(c) Epicardium
(d) Pericardium
Ans. d

Q.5. About ……..of the total calcium present in the human body is in the blood.
(a) 99%
(b) 70%
(c) 5%
(d) 1%
Ans. d

Q.6. Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This ‘error’ refers to
(a) hormonal overproduction
(b) non disjunction
(c) atrophy of endocrine glands
(d) inherited lack of an enzyme
Ans. c

Q.7. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against gravity and is prevented from flowing back by
(a) the extremely low pressure of venous blood
(b) valves
(c) movements in the surrounding muscles
(d) the narrowing down of the lumen of veins by the contraction of the muscle layer comprising their walls
Ans. b

Q.8. Identical twins arise when two
(a) cells develop independently from the same zygote
(b) gametes develop independently
(c) sperms develop independently
(d) ova develop independently
Ans. a

Q.9. Element that is not found in blood is
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) chromium
(d) magnesium
Ans. c

Q.10. Scratching eases itching because
(a) it kills germs.
(b) it suppresses the production of enzymes which cause itching,
(c) it removes the outer dust in the skin.
(d) it stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals.
Ans. d

Q.11. The gland, which in relation to body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after puberty, is?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Adrenal
Ans. c

Q.12. A human sperm may contain ?
1. X-chromosome
2. Y-chromosome
3. XY-chromosome
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and 2
(d) l,2 and 3
Ans. c

Q.13. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs of human body?
(a) Radius
(b) Tibia
(c) Femur
(d) Fibula
Ans. a

Q.14. Bleeding from artery is characterized by which of the following?
1. Blood is red.
2. Blood is purple.
3. Bleeding is continuous.
4. Bleeding is intermittent.
(a) 1 and3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. b

Q.15. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?
(a) Centriole
(b) Molar tooth
(c) Appendix
(d) Diaphragm
Ans. d

Q.16. Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint?
(a) Humenis and radius
(b) Carpals
(c) Hip girdle and femur
(d) Skull & neck verterbrae
Ans. b

Q.17. Pancreas secretes hormones which help in
(a) blood clotting
(b) production of antibodies
(c) growth of body
(d) keeping sugar balance in body
Ans. d

Q.18. S-A node of mammalian heart is known as
(a) Autoregulator
(b) Pace-maker
(c) Time controller
(d) Beat regulator
Ans. b

Q.19. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure:
1. It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel.
2. It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases,
3. It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries.
4. It is usually lower in women than in men.
Of these, the correct ones are
(a) 1 and 4
(b) l, 2and 3
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) l,2,3 and 4
Ans. d

Q.20. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is?
(a) ACTH
(b) Leutinizing hormone
(c) Adrenalin
(d) Lactogenic hormone

Q.21. What is the correct sequence of the following in heart attack?
1. Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel
2. ‘Plaque’ from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol
3. Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen
4. Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2,4, 1,3
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4
(d) 4, 2, 1 3
Ans. b

Q.22. Bile juice is secreted by
(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Gall bladder
Ans. b

Q.23. Veins differ from arteries in having
(a) thinner walls
(b) strong walls
(c) narrower lumen
(d) valves to control direction of flow
Ans. d

Q.24. What is the main function of insulin in the human body?
(a) To maintain blood pressure
(b) To help in digestion of food
(c) To control the level of sugar in the body
(d) To check the level of iodine in the body
Ans. c

Q.25. An enzyme that works in an acidic medium is
(a) pepsin
(b) tiypsin
(c) ptyalin
(d) maltose
Ans. a

Q.26. The blood pressure is the pressure of blood in
(a) arteries
(b) veins
(c) auricles
(d) ventricles
Ans. a

Q.27. The total number of bones in human skull are
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 30
(d) 32
Ans. c

Q.28. Which of the following glands controls the development of sex organs in humans?
(a) Paancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pituitary
Ans. d

Q.29. Oxygen is transported to every cell of the human body by?
(a) red blood cells
(b) blood platelets
(c) white blood cells
(d) hormones
Ans. a

Q.30. Which of the following components of blood protects human beings from infection?
(a) Plasma
(b) Blood Platelets
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) White Blood Corpuscles
Ans. d

Q.31. The normal temperature of the human body is
(a) 90 F
(b) 98 F
(c) 98.4 F
(d) 96.4 F
Ans. c

Q.32 .If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is suffering from
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) astigmatism
(d) None of these
Ans. d

Q.33. The blood pressure values of four persons are given below:
1. Mrs.X-90/60
2. Mr.X-160/120
3. Mr. Y-120/80
4. Mrs.Y-140/l00
Who among the following has normal blood pressure?
(a) Mrs. Y
(b) Mr. X
(c) Mrs. X
(d) Mr. Y
Ans. d

Q.34. In the case of a ‘Test-tube baby’?
(a) fertilization takes place inside the test tube.
(b) development of the baby takes place inside the test tube.
(c) fertilization takes place outside the mother body.
(d) unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube.
Ans. c

Q.35. Pituitary gland is present
(a) below the brain
(b) above the brain
(c) inside the brain
(d) nowhere near the brain
Ans. a

Q.36. Which of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in human body?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Spleen
(d) Lungs
Ans. d

Q.37. Cornea is a part of which of the following organs of human body?
(a) Eye
(b) Ear
(c) Nose
(d) Heart
Ans. a

Q.38. What is Funny Bone?
(a) A muscle
(b) A nerve
(c) A bone
(d) A blood vessel
Ans. b

Q.39. Man cannot digest cellulose whereas cows can do so because?
(a) their gut contains bacteria capable of digesting cellulose.
(b) they have a many – chambered stomach.
(c) they have efficient grinding molars.
(d) they produce an enzyme cellulose which can digest cellulose.
Ans. a

Q.40. Which of the following when taken by pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Xylidine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) None of these
Ans. c

Q.41. The diploid number of chromosomes in human body is ?
(a) 24
(b) 40
(c) 46
(d) 48
Ans. c

Q.42. The largest cell in the human body is
(a) Nerve cell
(b) Muscle cell
(c) Liver cell
(d) Kidney cell
Ans. a

Q.43. Lichens are formed due to the symbiotic association of
(a) moss and fungi
(b) bacteria and fungi
(c) algae and fungi
(d) None of these
Ans. c

Q.44. Insects form the largest class of animals living on land and sea. They are grouped into
(a) 22 orders
(b) 26 orders
(c) 29 orders
(d) 32 orders
Ans. c

Q.45. Which of the following statements is true for planktons?
(a) They live on the surface of lake water.
(b) They live on the bottom of lakes.
(c) They live on the plants growing in water.
(d) They live in the water column.
Ans. b

Q.46. Which of the following has the smallest egg?
(a) Ostrich
(b) Humming bird
(c) Pigeon
(d) Homo sapiens
Ans. c

Q.47. The population of which of the following is maximum on the earth?
(a) Reptiles
(b) Fishes
(c) Birds
(d) Beetles
Ans. d

Q.48. Poison glands of snakes are homologous to
(a) stings of rays
(b) salivary glands of vertebrates
(c) electric organs of fishes
(d) sebaccous glands of mammals
Ans. b

Q.49. The phylum chordata is characterized by the presence of
(a) spinal cord
(b) notochord
(c) nerve chord
(d) None of these
Ans. d

Q.50. Which of the following activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants?
(a) Growth of lateral buds
(b) Cell division
(c) Root initiation
(d) Development of fleshy fruits
Ans. c

SSC Multi Tasking GK Model Paper II

51. The precipitation consisting of a mixture of snow and rain is—
(A) Sleet
(B) Smog
(C) Snow-line
(D) Fog
Ans : (A)
52. ‘Operation Flood’ was launched in 1970 to—
(A) Control floods
(B) Increase milk production
(C) Improve water sources
(D) Construct more dams
Ans : (B)
53. Photogrammetry is—
(A) Portraying gradient
(B) Movement of setlines
(C) A method of solving geometrical problems
(D) Use of photography in surveying and mapping
Ans : (D)
54. The spice State of India is—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Ans : (D)
55. Jog Falls is found across the river—
(A) Cauvery
(B) Kabini
(C) Krishna
(D) Sharavati
Ans : (D)
56. Which of the following sea ports of India is the main outlet for export of Tea ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Kandla
(D) Chennai
Ans : (B)
57. The International Date Line passes through the—
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
Ans : (A)
58. Which of the following is not a form of precipitation ?
(A) Rainfall
(B) Snowfall
(C) Fog
(D) Hail
Ans : (C)
59. Which of the following is a Great Circle ?
(A) The Tropic of Cancer
(B) The Arctic Circle
(C) The Equator
(D) The Tropic of Capricorn
Ans : (C)
60. Tides in the sea have stored in them—
(A) Hydraulic energy
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Gravitational potential energy
(D) A combination of all the above
Ans : (D)
61. Which component of blood is considered as the guard cell of our body ?
(A) R.B.C.
(B) Platelets
(C) Plasma
(D) W.B.C.
Ans : (D)
62. Camel can walk easily in the desert, because—
(A) It has thick skin
(B) It can maintain water level in the body
(C) It has a layer of fat under the skin to combat heat
(D) It has long legs with padded paws
Ans : (D)
63. The function of arteries in our body is to—
(A) Carry blood away from the heart
(B) Purify the blood
(C) Manufacture White Blood Corpuscles
(D) Carry blood back to the heart
Ans : (A)
64. Plants climb by means of—
(A) Tendrils
(B) Roots
(C) Pistil
(D) Branches
Ans : (A)
65. This term is associated with the Biology of silkworms.
(A) Apiculture
(B) Sericulture
(C) Sylviculture
(D) Pisciculture
Ans : (B)
66. Pick out the correct sequence of a simple land food chain :
1. Deer
2. Grass
3. Tiger
(A) 1–2–3
(B) 3–2–1
(C) 1–3–2
(D) 2–1–3
Ans : (D)
67. Sex in human beings is determined by—
(A) Vitamins
(B) Chromosomes
(C) Hormones
(D) Nutrients
Ans : (B)
68. Deficiency of fluorine in drinking water causes—
(A) Dental caries (cavity)
(B) Dental fluorosis
(C) Skeletal fluorosis
(D) Goiter
Ans : (A)
69. In man,urea is formed in—
(A) Kidney
(B) Liver
(C) Nephron
(D) Urinary Bladder
Ans : (B)
70. The most important function of perspiration is—
(A) Get rid of the body wastes
(B) Regulate body temperature
(C) Regulate body wastes
(D) Lubricate the skin
Ans : (B)
71. ECG is the instrument that records—
(A) Potential different of cardiac muscles
(B) Rate of respiration
(C) Rate of glomerular filtration
(D) Volume of blood pumped
Ans : (A)
72. Hot spot is an area having—
(A) Wide variety of species
(B) Wealth of endemic species
(C) Rich variety of flora and fauna
(D) Conserving species in natural habitat
Ans : (B)
73. Electromagnet is used in a—
(A) Calling bell
(B) Computer
(C) Motor
(D) Washing machine
Ans : (A)
74. Kilo Watt Hour represents the unit for—
(A) Force
(B) Power
(C) Time
(D) Energy
Ans : (D)
75. A transformer is used to—
(A) Convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
(B) Convert alternating current into direct current
(C) Convert direct current to alternating current
(D) Transform alternating current voltage
Ans : (D)
76. Clear nights are colder than cloudy nights because of—
(A) Conduction
(B) Condensation
(C) Radiation
(D) Insolation
Ans : (C)
77. A stick partly dipped in water appears broken due to—
(A) Reflection
(B) Refraction
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Diffraction
Ans : (B)
78. What is condensation ?
(A) Change of gas into solid
(B) Change of solid into liquid
(C) Change of vapour into liquid
(D) Change of heat energy into cooling energy
Ans : (C)
79. Kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy in—
(A) Electric Motor
(B) Dynamo
(C) Electromagnet
(D) Ammeter
Ans : (B)
80. Floppy disk is an example of—
(A) Read Only Memory
(B) Random Access Memory
(C) Cache Memory
(D) Secondary Storage Memory
Ans : (D)
81. Which of the following compounds are sprayed over clouds to cause artificial rain ?
(A) Ice
(B) NaOH
(C) AgI
(D) NH4Cl
Ans : (C)
82. Iodine deficiency in diet is known to cause—
(A) Rickets
(B) Obesity
(C) Scurvy
(D) Goiter
Ans : (D)
83. The refrigeration of the food articles keeps them fresh, because—
(A) Water forms crystals
(B) Chemical reaction is slowed down
(C) Chemical reaction take place faster
(D) Bacteria are killed
Ans : (A)
84. Which substance is called the ‘liquid gold’ ?
(A) Gold as a liquid form
(B) Sodium as a liquid form
(C) Mustard oil
(D) Petroleum oil
Ans : (D)
85. Percentage of silver in German silver is—
(A) 25%
(B) 0%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%
Ans : (B)
86. Which type of compounds are sugar and common salt ?
(A) Both are organic compounds
(B) Both are inorganic compounds
(C) Sugar is an organic compound and common salt is an inorganic compound
(D) Sugar is inorganic compound and common salt is an organic compound
Ans : (C)
87. The chemical name of Vitamin ‘E’ is—
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Retinol
(C) Tocopherol
(D) Thiamine
Ans : (C)
88. Which of the following gases has bleaching property ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon Monoxide
(C) Chlorine
(D) Hydrogen
Ans : (C)
89. The heaviest body of our Solar system is—
(A) Sun
(B) Uranus
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
Ans : (A)
90. From amongst the following; name the famous Indian ornithologist—
(A) Dr. Salim Ali
(B) Dr. Gopalasamudram N. Ramachandran
(C) Dr. J. B. S. Haldane
(D) Dr. H. G. Khorana
Ans : (A)
91. Who performed the longest space journey in the year 2007 ?
(A) Venus Williams
(B) Serena Williams
(C) Sunita William
(D) Sir John William
Ans : (C)
92. ‘The Lost Child’ was written by—
(A) Nirad C. Chowdhury
(B) Mulk Raj Anand
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Annie Besant
Ans : (B)
93. Dr. M. S. Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which of the following fields ?
(A) Nuclear Physics
(B) Agriculture
(C) Astrophysics
(D) Medicine
Ans : (B)
94. The Headquarters of UNESCO is at—
(A) Rome
(B) Geneva
(C) Paris
(D) New York
Ans : (C)
95. January 15 is celebrated as the—
(A) Army Day
(B) Martyr’s Day
(C) Independence Day
(D) Ugadhi
Ans : (A)
96. Bijapur is known for its—
(A) Heavy rainfall
(B) Rock Temple
(C) Gol Gumbaj
(D) Statue of Gomateshwara
Ans : (C)
97. The Americans are also known as—
(A) Kiwis
(B) Yankees
(C) Tories
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
98. India lifted the ONGC Nehru Cup, 2009 after defeating in the final—
(A) Syria
(B) Pakistan
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)
99. An element which does not react with oxygen is—
(A) Chlorine
(B) Iodine
(C) Helium
(D) Nitrogen
Ans : (C)
100. During sleep, man’s blood pressure—
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Fluctuates
(D) Remains constant
Ans : (B)