Held on 11-01-2009
1. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Trans Siberian Railway—Moscow to Vladivostok
(B) Canadian Pacific Railway—Halifax to Vancouver
(C) Orient Express Railway—Paris to Istanbul
(D) Cape Cairo Railway—Warsaw to Madrid
2. Which is the largest canal of the world ?
(A) Suez canal
(B) Panama canal
(C) Kra canal
(D) Bhakra canal
3. Which of the following are connected by Suez canal ?
(A) Red Sea and Dead Sea
(B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
(C) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Red Sea and Black Sea
4. Which of the following ports is not situated at Pacific coast ?
(A) Vancouver
(B) Los Angeles
(C) San Francisco
(D) Miami
5. Which of the following airports is not situated at New York-Tokyo air route ?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) Panama
6. Which of the following occupations is not related to tertiary economy ?
(A) Transport
(B) Hunting and gathering
(C) Trade
(D) Communication
7. In which region of the world are nights the winters ?
(A) Tundra region
(B) Mediterranean region
(C) Tropical desert region
(D) Equatorial region
8. Which of the following is not the most developed part of the world ?
(A) Most of the Western Europe
(B) Japan
(C) Nepal
(D) South-East Australia
9. The school of Environmental Determinism was born in—
(A) Germany
(B) India
(C) England
(D) France
10. Who was the father of the school of possibilism ?
(A) Davis
(B) Chisolm
(C) Vidal-de-la-Blache
(D) Aristotle
11. Which of the following is secondary consumer ?
(A) Goat
(B) Lion
(C) Reindeer
(D) None of these
12. How much is the area of India ?
(A) 32,87,263 sq. km
(B) 99,76,140 sq. km
(C) 95,97,000 sq. km
(D) 31,40,200 sq. km
13. Which is the southern-most point of India ?
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Goa
(C) Indira point
(D) Rameshwaram
14. From economic point of view, the most important rocks are—
(A) Dharwar
(B) Gondwana
(C) Vindhyan
(D) Cuddapah
15. The stretch of the Himalayas between the Indus and the Sutlej rivers is called—
(A) The Assam Himalayas
(B) The Punjab Himalayas
(C) The Nepal Himalayas
(D) The Kumaon Himalayas
16. The flood plain along river banks formed by newer alluvium is called—
(A) Bhabar
(B) Khadar
(C) Tarai
(D) Bangar
17. Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’ ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Chambal
(C) Gandak
(D) Son
18. In which state are the Mahadeo hills located ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
19. The ‘Kalabaisakhis’ originate during—
(A) Winter season
(B) Rainy season
(C) Period of retreating monsoon
(D) Summers
20. What type of forests are the ‘Sunderbans’ ?
(A) Tidal forests
(B) Monsoon forests
(C) Tropical Evergreen forests
(D) Temperate Evergreen forests
21. The ‘Regur’ soil is—
(A) Red soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) None of these
22. Which river basin has the maximum amount of water available for irrigation ?
(A) The Ganga
(B) The Indus
(C) The Brahmaputra
(D) Mahanadi
23. Which state of India is the largest producer of Iron ore ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh
24. Which mineral is known as ‘Black Gold’ ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Bauxite
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese
25. Which food grain occupies the largest cropped area in India ?
(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Sugarcane
26. Which of the following states is the largest producer of wheat ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Madhya Pradesh
27. The leading jowar (Sorghum) producing state in India is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Bihar
28. Which of the following is a cash crop ?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Jowar
(D) Sugarcane
29. Which of the following is a fibre crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Maize
30. Which of the following states is the leading producer of sugarcane in India ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar
31. Which Indian state has the highest per hectare production of cotton ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Punjab
32. Which state is the largest producer of tea in India ?
(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
33. Which of the following is a basis to divide agriculture into different types ?
(A) Cropping system
(B) Water supply and moisture
(C) Availability of land
(D) All of these
34. In India, the local name of shifting cultivation is—
(A) Jhum
(B) Kumari
(C) Penda
(D) All of these
35. Which city of Madhya Pradesh, as per census of 2001, is most populated ?
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Mandsaur
(C) Bhopal
(D) Indore
36. What is the problem faced by Indian farmers ?
(A) Small and fragmented land holdings
(B) Lack of capital
(C) Faulty marketing system
(D) All of the above
37. Which of the following is not a merit of green revolution ?
(A) Increase in agricultural production
(B) Reduction in the import of food grains
(C) Prosperity of the farmers
(D) Regional imbalance
38. What is National Water Grid Plan ?
(A) To link the Himalayan rivers with peninsular rivers
(B) To link east and west flowing rivers of the peninsular
(C) To link the rivers of India with the rivers of Pakistan
(D) None of the above
39. Which of the following is called the ‘Cottonopolis’ of India ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Agra
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad
40. After crushing the sugarcane, the left over baggasse is used as :
(A) Fuel
(B) Mixed with jaggery (‘gur’)
(C) Mixed in sugar
(D) None of the above
41. Which of the following raw materials is needed for the manufacturing of cement ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Sea shells
(C) Slag from steel plant
(D) All of the above
42. Which of the following cement plants is located in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Satna
(B) Durg
(C) Narnaul
(D) None of these
43. Which of the following factors is responsible for regional disparities in India ?
(A) Regional variations in relief
(B) High incoherence of temperature in different parts of India
(C) Regional variations in the availability of minerals
(D) All of the above
44. Which of the following is not an area of the highest agricultural productivity ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Western Uttar Pradesh
45. Who used the method of ranking coefficient for the first time in India in order to calculate agricultural productivity ?
(A) Prof. Mohammed Shafi
(B) Prof. Jasbir Singh
(C) Prof. M.G. Kendall
(D) Prof. Dudley Stamp
46. Which of the following is a method to eradicate poverty ?
(A) More investment in productive activities
(B) Increased savings
(C) Population control
(D) All of the above
47. Which is the period of rapid growth of India's population ?
(A) 1901–1921
(B) 1921–1951
(C) 1951–1981
(D) 1981–2001
48. Which of the following is an effect of globalization on India ?
(A) Increase in foreign trade
(B) Increase in the number of foreign banks
(C) Direct foreign investment
(D) All of the above
49. Which of the following is a result of ‘Green House Effect’ ?
(A) Rise in temperature
(B) Industrial development
(C) Population growth
(D) None of these
50. Which disease is not caused by drinking polluted water ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Jaundice
(D) AIDS
51. Which of the following states of India has the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Nagaland
52. Which one of the following Indian cities has population more than 50 lakh, as per the census of 2001 ?
(A) Rajkot
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Jaipur
(D) Hyderabad
53. Which of the following states does not have common boundary with Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar
54. Which of the following landforms is not found in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Betul Plateau
(B) Pulicat Lake
(C) Bharner Mountain Range
(D) Kaimur Hills
55. The ‘Bad land’ landform is found in—
(A) Thar desert
(B) Chambal valley
(C) Sundarban delta
(D) Gulf of Kachchh
56. Which state of India is the largest producer of diamond ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Rajasthan
57. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Assam—Magh Bihu
(B) Haryana—Tea Festival
(C) Punjab—Hola Mohalla
(D) Madhya Pradesh—Fair of Nagaji
58. Which state is the only producer of tin in India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Assam
(D) Madhya Pradesh
59. The total number of districts in Madhya Pradesh is—
(A) 25
(B) 48
(C) 47
(D) 37
60. What is the name of handicrafts emporia centres of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Koel
(B) Mayur
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Mriganayanee
61. Which ocean, according to Wegener, surrounded Pangaea on all sides ?
(A) Panthalassa
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
62. Many island arcs and peripheral trenches of the Pacific Ocean are the result of—
(A) The convergence of two continental plates
(B) The convergence of a continental plate and an oceanic plate
(C) The convergence of two oceanic plates
(D) None of the above
63. Exfoliation is most active—
(A) in regions where frost occurs regularly
(B) in limestone areas
(C) at high altitudes
(D) in arid or semi-arid regions, which have a large diurnal range of temperature
64. Which of the following landforms is not formed by weathering ?
(A) Rift valley
(B) Crevasses
(C) Talus
(D) Yardang
65. Which of the following is not a process of river erosion ?
(A) Hydraulic action
(B) Deflation
(C) Corrosion
(D) Attrition
66. Which of the following landforms is formed by glacier ?
(A) Tarn
(B) Lagoon
(C) Lappies
(D) Doline
67. With what are the Inselberg and Hamada associated ?
(A) Glacial erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) River erosion
(D) Wind deposition
68. Which of the following is a Caldera lake ?
(A) Lake Chilka
(B) Lake Pulicat
(C) Lake Toba
(D) None of these
69. Which instrument is used for measuring the intensity of an earthquake ?
(A) Seismograph
(B) Hythergraph
(C) Altimeter
(D) None of these
70. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Alfred Wegener—Plate Tectonics
(B) Archdeacon pratt—Continental Drift Theory
(C) William Moris Davis—Geographical Cycle of Erosion
(D) Walter Penck—Theory of Isostasy
71. Which of the following is an example of volcanic mountains ?
(A) Rockies
(B) Fujiyoma
(C) Salt range
(D) Caucasus
72. The example of an intermontane plateau is—
(A) The Plateau of Bolivia
(B) The Plateau of Antrim
(C) The Deccan Plateau
(D) The Plateau of Pantagonia
73. Monadnocks are situated in—
(A) Mountain
(B) Fold mountain
(C) Peneplain
(D) Loess plain
74. That layer of the atmosphere, where ozone gas is found—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere
75. Radiant energy from the sun that strikes the earth is called—
(A) Solar constant
(B) Insolation
(C) Heat budget
(D) Terrestrial radiation
76. The maximum annual range of temperature occurs over—
(A) Poles
(B) Near the equator
(C) Coastal regions
(D) Asia and North America at latitude 60°N
77. Which of the following are horse latitudes ?
(A) 30°to 35°latitudes in both the hemispheres
(B) 10°North latitude
(C) 60°latitude
(D) None of the above
78. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) When the temperature of air increases, the pressure of air decreases
(B) When the temperature of air decreases, the pressure of air increases
(C) A rising thermometer shows a falling barometer
(D) When air rises, the pressure of air increases
79. Which pair is incorrect ?
(A) Fohn—Dry and warm wind
(B) Chinook —Snow eater
(C) Mistral —Winter season
(D) Bora —North America
80. Which of the following is not a cyclone ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Hurricane
(C) Typhoon
(D) Sirocco
81. Which one of the following is not erosional landform of wind ?
(A) Cirque
(B) Inselberg
(C) Mushroom rock
(D) Zeugen
82. Which type of rainfall occurs over north-west India during winter season ?
(A) Cyclonic rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Convectional rainfall
(D) Anticyclonic rainfall
83. In which of the spheres of the atmosphere temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°centigrade with a height of one thousand metres ?
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Troposphere
84. Ratio between water and land on the earth is —
(A) 78 : 22
(B) 71 : 29
(C) 80 : 20
(D) 20 : 80
85. The northern hemisphere is called as—
(A) The land hemisphere
(B) The water hemisphere
(C) Water planet
(D) None of these
86. The ocean’s greatest depth is—
(A) Aleutian Trench
(B) Japan Trench
(C) Mariana Trench
(D) Java Trench
87. The zone of highest salinity is—
(A) The tropical zone of the sea
(B) The temperate zone of the sea
(C) The polar zone of the sea
(D) None of the above
88. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current ?
(A) Kurushio current
(B) California current
(C) Okhotsk current
(D) Falkland current
89. Which one of the following is an example of coral island ?
(A) Ellice
(B) Barren
(C) Krakatao
(D) Sandwich
90. Which one of the following is an activity of the Eskimos and Lapps ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Plantation agriculture
(C) Hunting and fishing
(D) None of these
91. Bushman is associated with—
(A) Kalahari desert
(B) Congo basin
(C) Himalaya mountains
(D) Malwa plateau
92. Which one of the following is not a habitat of the Santhals ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Punjab
93. Which state of India has the highest percentage of scheduled tribe population ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Nagaland
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Assam
94. Which continent has the highest growth of population ?
(A) Africa
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Asia
95. Which is not a sparsely populated area ?
(A) Cold Polar Region
(B) Sahara
(C) South-Eastern Asia
(D) Kalahari
96. Which one of the following has maximum farm-houses ?
(A) India
(B) United States of America
(C) China
(D) Japan
97. Which one of the following is a mining city ?
(A) Kalgoorlie
(B) Oxford
(C) Singapore
(D) Islamabad
98. Which one of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Concentric Zone Theory—E.W. Burgess
(B) Sector Theory—Alfred Weber
(C) Multi-Nuclei Theory—Homer Hoyt
(D) Fused Growth Theory—Griffith Taylor
99. The largest producer of rice in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) Bangladesh
100. Which one of the following geographical conditions is not favourable for wheat cultivation ?
(A) 10°celcius temperature at the time of sowing
(B) Loamy soils
(C) More than 250 cm annual rainfall
(D) Level land
101. Which of the following is also grown as a ‘Zaid’ crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Cotton
(C) Maize for fodder
(D) Jute
102. Tea can be grown on—
(A) Hill slopes
(B) Plains
(C) Swamps
(D) None of these
103. Which of the following is a plantation crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Barley
(D) Coffee
104. Which of the following is not a rubber producing country ?
(A) Thailand
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) None of these
105. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to cotton production ?
(A) Cotton is grown in tropical areas
(B) Sri Lanka is the largest exporter of cotton
(C) Cotton is a dominant crop in areas of over 1000 cm annual rainfall
(D) Cotton can also be grown in Tundra region
106. Which state of India has the largest area under forests ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar
107. Grand Bank is a major producer of—
(A) Rice
(B) Marine fisheries
(C) Iron ore
(D) Tea
108. Which of the following is a type of iron ore ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Lignite
(C) Peat
(D) Limonite
109. Manganese is used for making—
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Paint
(C) China clay
(D) In all these
110. Which state of India is the largest producer of copper ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Assam
111. Bauxite is used for making—
(A) Coal
(B) Gold
(C) Aluminium
(D) None of these
112. Which continent of the world has the maximum known coal reserves ?
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) Australia
(D) Africa
113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Jharia coalfield—Jharkhand
(B) Girdih coalfield—West Bengal
(C) Korba coalfield—Madhya Pradesh
(D) Umaria coalfield—Chhattisgarh
114. In which rocks are the oil reserves mainly found in India ?
(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) None of these
115. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Lower Sileru—Andhra Pradesh
(B) Nagarjun Sagar—Karnataka
(C) Koyna—Maharashtra
(D) Pong—Punjab
116. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Jog—Waterfall
(B) Ankleshwar—Mineral oilfield
(C) Bokaro—Gold mine
(D) Paradwip—Iron and steel plant
117. Not related to textile industry is—
(A) Spinning
(B) Weaving
(C) Jute
(D) Pulp
118. Which is India's first oil refinery ?
(A) Digboi
(B) Panipat
(C) Trombay
(D) Vishakhapatnam
119. Manchester is known for—
(A) Silk Industry
(B) Woollen Textile
(C) Cotton Textile
(D) None of these
120. Which is the most universal mode of transport ?
(A) Road Transport
(B) Rail Transport
(C) Ocean Transport
(D) None of these
Answers:
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (C)
91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (A) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D) 110. (B) 111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (B)
116. (*) In given pairs (C) and (D) pairs are incorrect. So this question is wrong.
117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (A)
