MP P.S.C. State Service (Pre.) Solved Paper 2008

Held on 11-01-2009
1. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Trans Siberian Railway—Moscow to Vladivostok
(B) Canadian Pacific Railway—Halifax to Vancouver
(C) Orient Express Railway—Paris to Istanbul
(D) Cape Cairo Railway—Warsaw to Madrid

2. Which is the largest canal of the world ?
(A) Suez canal
(B) Panama canal
(C) Kra canal
(D) Bhakra canal

3. Which of the following are connected by Suez canal ?
(A) Red Sea and Dead Sea
(B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
(C) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Red Sea and Black Sea

4. Which of the following ports is not situated at Pacific coast ?
(A) Vancouver
(B) Los Angeles
(C) San Francisco
(D) Miami

5. Which of the following airports is not situated at New York-Tokyo air route ?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) Panama

6. Which of the following occupations is not related to tertiary economy ?
(A) Transport
(B) Hunting and gathering
(C) Trade
(D) Communication

7. In which region of the world are nights the winters ?
(A) Tundra region
(B) Mediterranean region
(C) Tropical desert region
(D) Equatorial region

8. Which of the following is not the most developed part of the world ?
(A) Most of the Western Europe
(B) Japan
(C) Nepal
(D) South-East Australia

9. The school of Environmental Determinism was born in—
(A) Germany
(B) India
(C) England
(D) France

10. Who was the father of the school of possibilism ?
(A) Davis
(B) Chisolm
(C) Vidal-de-la-Blache
(D) Aristotle

11. Which of the following is secondary consumer ?
(A) Goat
(B) Lion
(C) Reindeer
(D) None of these

12. How much is the area of India ?
(A) 32,87,263 sq. km
(B) 99,76,140 sq. km
(C) 95,97,000 sq. km
(D) 31,40,200 sq. km

13. Which is the southern-most point of India ?
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Goa
(C) Indira point
(D) Rameshwaram

14. From economic point of view, the most important rocks are—
(A) Dharwar
(B) Gondwana
(C) Vindhyan
(D) Cuddapah

15. The stretch of the Himalayas between the Indus and the Sutlej rivers is called—
(A) The Assam Himalayas
(B) The Punjab Himalayas
(C) The Nepal Himalayas
(D) The Kumaon Himalayas

16. The flood plain along river banks formed by newer alluvium is called—
(A) Bhabar
(B) Khadar
(C) Tarai
(D) Bangar

17. Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’ ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Chambal
(C) Gandak
(D) Son

18. In which state are the Mahadeo hills located ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh

19. The ‘Kalabaisakhis’ originate during—
(A) Winter season
(B) Rainy season
(C) Period of retreating monsoon
(D) Summers

20. What type of forests are the ‘Sunderbans’ ?
(A) Tidal forests
(B) Monsoon forests
(C) Tropical Evergreen forests
(D) Temperate Evergreen forests

21. The ‘Regur’ soil is—
(A) Red soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) None of these

22. Which river basin has the maximum amount of water available for irrigation ?
(A) The Ganga
(B) The Indus
(C) The Brahmaputra
(D) Mahanadi

23. Which state of India is the largest producer of Iron ore ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh

24. Which mineral is known as ‘Black Gold’ ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Bauxite
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese

25. Which food grain occupies the largest cropped area in India ?
(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Sugarcane

26. Which of the following states is the largest producer of wheat ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Madhya Pradesh

27. The leading jowar (Sorghum) producing state in India is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Bihar

28. Which of the following is a cash crop ?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Jowar
(D) Sugarcane

29. Which of the following is a fibre crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Maize

30. Which of the following states is the leading producer of sugarcane in India ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar

31. Which Indian state has the highest per hectare production of cotton ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Punjab

32. Which state is the largest producer of tea in India ?
(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka

33. Which of the following is a basis to divide agriculture into different types ?
(A) Cropping system
(B) Water supply and moisture
(C) Availability of land
(D) All of these

34. In India, the local name of shifting cultivation is—
(A) Jhum
(B) Kumari
(C) Penda
(D) All of these

35. Which city of Madhya Pradesh, as per census of 2001, is most populated ?
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Mandsaur
(C) Bhopal
(D) Indore

36. What is the problem faced by Indian farmers ?
(A) Small and fragmented land holdings
(B) Lack of capital
(C) Faulty marketing system
(D) All of the above

37. Which of the following is not a merit of green revolution ?
(A) Increase in agricultural production
(B) Reduction in the import of food grains
(C) Prosperity of the farmers
(D) Regional imbalance

38. What is National Water Grid Plan ?
(A) To link the Himalayan rivers with peninsular rivers
(B) To link east and west flowing rivers of the peninsular
(C) To link the rivers of India with the rivers of Pakistan
(D) None of the above

39. Which of the following is called the ‘Cottonopolis’ of India ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Agra
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad

40. After crushing the sugarcane, the left over baggasse is used as :
(A) Fuel
(B) Mixed with jaggery (‘gur’)
(C) Mixed in sugar
(D) None of the above

41. Which of the following raw materials is needed for the manufacturing of cement ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Sea shells
(C) Slag from steel plant
(D) All of the above

42. Which of the following cement plants is located in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Satna
(B) Durg
(C) Narnaul
(D) None of these

43. Which of the following factors is responsible for regional disparities in India ?
(A) Regional variations in relief
(B) High incoherence of temperature in different parts of India
(C) Regional variations in the availability of minerals
(D) All of the above

44. Which of the following is not an area of the highest agricultural productivity ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Western Uttar Pradesh

45. Who used the method of ranking coefficient for the first time in India in order to calculate agricultural productivity ?
(A) Prof. Mohammed Shafi
(B) Prof. Jasbir Singh
(C) Prof. M.G. Kendall
(D) Prof. Dudley Stamp

46. Which of the following is a method to eradicate poverty ?
(A) More investment in productive activities
(B) Increased savings
(C) Population control
(D) All of the above

47. Which is the period of rapid growth of India's population ?
(A) 1901–1921
(B) 1921–1951
(C) 1951–1981
(D) 1981–2001

48. Which of the following is an effect of globalization on India ?
(A) Increase in foreign trade
(B) Increase in the number of foreign banks
(C) Direct foreign investment
(D) All of the above

49. Which of the following is a result of ‘Green House Effect’ ?
(A) Rise in temperature
(B) Industrial development
(C) Population growth
(D) None of these

50. Which disease is not caused by drinking polluted water ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Jaundice
(D) AIDS

51. Which of the following states of India has the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Nagaland

52. Which one of the following Indian cities has population more than 50 lakh, as per the census of 2001 ?
(A) Rajkot
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Jaipur
(D) Hyderabad

53. Which of the following states does not have common boundary with Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar

54. Which of the following landforms is not found in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Betul Plateau
(B) Pulicat Lake
(C) Bharner Mountain Range
(D) Kaimur Hills

55. The ‘Bad land’ landform is found in—
(A) Thar desert
(B) Chambal valley
(C) Sundarban delta
(D) Gulf of Kachchh

56. Which state of India is the largest producer of diamond ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Rajasthan

57. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Assam—Magh Bihu
(B) Haryana—Tea Festival
(C) Punjab—Hola Mohalla
(D) Madhya Pradesh—Fair of Nagaji

58. Which state is the only producer of tin in India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Assam
(D) Madhya Pradesh

59. The total number of districts in Madhya Pradesh is—
(A) 25
(B) 48
(C) 47
(D) 37

60. What is the name of handicrafts emporia centres of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Koel
(B) Mayur
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Mriganayanee

61. Which ocean, according to Wegener, surrounded Pangaea on all sides ?
(A) Panthalassa
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

62. Many island arcs and peripheral trenches of the Pacific Ocean are the result of—
(A) The convergence of two continental plates
(B) The convergence of a continental plate and an oceanic plate
(C) The convergence of two oceanic plates
(D) None of the above

63. Exfoliation is most active—
(A) in regions where frost occurs regularly
(B) in limestone areas
(C) at high altitudes
(D) in arid or semi-arid regions, which have a large diurnal range of temperature

64. Which of the following landforms is not formed by weathering ?
(A) Rift valley
(B) Crevasses
(C) Talus
(D) Yardang

65. Which of the following is not a process of river erosion ?
(A) Hydraulic action
(B) Deflation
(C) Corrosion
(D) Attrition

66. Which of the following landforms is formed by glacier ?
(A) Tarn
(B) Lagoon
(C) Lappies
(D) Doline

67. With what are the Inselberg and Hamada associated ?
(A) Glacial erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) River erosion
(D) Wind deposition

68. Which of the following is a Caldera lake ?
(A) Lake Chilka
(B) Lake Pulicat
(C) Lake Toba
(D) None of these

69. Which instrument is used for measuring the intensity of an earthquake ?
(A) Seismograph
(B) Hythergraph
(C) Altimeter
(D) None of these

70. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Alfred Wegener—Plate Tectonics
(B) Archdeacon pratt—Continental Drift Theory
(C) William Moris Davis—Geographical Cycle of Erosion
(D) Walter Penck—Theory of Isostasy

71. Which of the following is an example of volcanic mountains ?
(A) Rockies
(B) Fujiyoma
(C) Salt range
(D) Caucasus

72. The example of an intermontane plateau is—
(A) The Plateau of Bolivia
(B) The Plateau of Antrim
(C) The Deccan Plateau
(D) The Plateau of Pantagonia

73. Monadnocks are situated in—
(A) Mountain
(B) Fold mountain
(C) Peneplain
(D) Loess plain

74. That layer of the atmosphere, where ozone gas is found—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

75. Radiant energy from the sun that strikes the earth is called—
(A) Solar constant
(B) Insolation
(C) Heat budget
(D) Terrestrial radiation

76. The maximum annual range of temperature occurs over—
(A) Poles
(B) Near the equator
(C) Coastal regions
(D) Asia and North America at latitude 60°N

77. Which of the following are horse latitudes ?
(A) 30°to 35°latitudes in both the hemispheres
(B) 10°North latitude
(C) 60°latitude
(D) None of the above

78. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) When the temperature of air increases, the pressure of air decreases
(B) When the temperature of air decreases, the pressure of air increases
(C) A rising thermometer shows a falling barometer
(D) When air rises, the pressure of air increases

79. Which pair is incorrect ?
(A) Fohn—Dry and warm wind
(B) Chinook —Snow eater
(C) Mistral —Winter season
(D) Bora —North America

80. Which of the following is not a cyclone ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Hurricane
(C) Typhoon
(D) Sirocco

81. Which one of the following is not erosional landform of wind ?
(A) Cirque
(B) Inselberg
(C) Mushroom rock
(D) Zeugen

82. Which type of rainfall occurs over north-west India during winter season ?
(A) Cyclonic rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Convectional rainfall
(D) Anticyclonic rainfall

83. In which of the spheres of the atmosphere temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°centigrade with a height of one thousand metres ?
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Troposphere

84. Ratio between water and land on the earth is —
(A) 78 : 22
(B) 71 : 29
(C) 80 : 20
(D) 20 : 80

85. The northern hemisphere is called as—
(A) The land hemisphere
(B) The water hemisphere
(C) Water planet
(D) None of these

86. The ocean’s greatest depth is—
(A) Aleutian Trench
(B) Japan Trench
(C) Mariana Trench
(D) Java Trench

87. The zone of highest salinity is—
(A) The tropical zone of the sea
(B) The temperate zone of the sea
(C) The polar zone of the sea
(D) None of the above

88. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current ?
(A) Kurushio current
(B) California current
(C) Okhotsk current
(D) Falkland current

89. Which one of the following is an example of coral island ?
(A) Ellice
(B) Barren
(C) Krakatao
(D) Sandwich

90. Which one of the following is an activity of the Eskimos and Lapps ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Plantation agriculture
(C) Hunting and fishing
(D) None of these

91. Bushman is associated with—
(A) Kalahari desert
(B) Congo basin
(C) Himalaya mountains
(D) Malwa plateau

92. Which one of the following is not a habitat of the Santhals ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Punjab

93. Which state of India has the highest percentage of scheduled tribe population ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Nagaland
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Assam

94. Which continent has the highest growth of population ?
(A) Africa
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Asia

95. Which is not a sparsely populated area ?
(A) Cold Polar Region
(B) Sahara
(C) South-Eastern Asia
(D) Kalahari

96. Which one of the following has maximum farm-houses ?
(A) India
(B) United States of America
(C) China
(D) Japan

97. Which one of the following is a mining city ?
(A) Kalgoorlie
(B) Oxford
(C) Singapore
(D) Islamabad

98. Which one of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Concentric Zone Theory—E.W. Burgess
(B) Sector Theory—Alfred Weber
(C) Multi-Nuclei Theory—Homer Hoyt
(D) Fused Growth Theory—Griffith Taylor

99. The largest producer of rice in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) Bangladesh

100. Which one of the following geographical conditions is not favourable for wheat cultivation ?
(A) 10°celcius temperature at the time of sowing
(B) Loamy soils
(C) More than 250 cm annual rainfall
(D) Level land

101. Which of the following is also grown as a ‘Zaid’ crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Cotton
(C) Maize for fodder
(D) Jute

102. Tea can be grown on—
(A) Hill slopes
(B) Plains
(C) Swamps
(D) None of these

103. Which of the following is a plantation crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Barley
(D) Coffee

104. Which of the following is not a rubber producing country ?
(A) Thailand
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) None of these

105. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to cotton production ?
(A) Cotton is grown in tropical areas
(B) Sri Lanka is the largest exporter of cotton
(C) Cotton is a dominant crop in areas of over 1000 cm annual rainfall
(D) Cotton can also be grown in Tundra region

106. Which state of India has the largest area under forests ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

107. Grand Bank is a major producer of—
(A) Rice
(B) Marine fisheries
(C) Iron ore
(D) Tea

108. Which of the following is a type of iron ore ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Lignite
(C) Peat
(D) Limonite

109. Manganese is used for making—
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Paint
(C) China clay
(D) In all these

110. Which state of India is the largest producer of copper ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Assam

111. Bauxite is used for making—
(A) Coal
(B) Gold
(C) Aluminium
(D) None of these

112. Which continent of the world has the maximum known coal reserves ?
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) Australia
(D) Africa

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Jharia coalfield—Jharkhand
(B) Girdih coalfield—West Bengal
(C) Korba coalfield—Madhya Pradesh
(D) Umaria coalfield—Chhattisgarh

114. In which rocks are the oil reserves mainly found in India ?
(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) None of these

115. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Lower Sileru—Andhra Pradesh
(B) Nagarjun Sagar—Karnataka
(C) Koyna—Maharashtra
(D) Pong—Punjab

116. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Jog—Waterfall
(B) Ankleshwar—Mineral oilfield
(C) Bokaro—Gold mine
(D) Paradwip—Iron and steel plant

117. Not related to textile industry is—
(A) Spinning
(B) Weaving
(C) Jute
(D) Pulp

118. Which is India's first oil refinery ?
(A) Digboi
(B) Panipat
(C) Trombay
(D) Vishakhapatnam

119. Manchester is known for—
(A) Silk Industry
(B) Woollen Textile
(C) Cotton Textile
(D) None of these

120. Which is the most universal mode of transport ?
(A) Road Transport
(B) Rail Transport
(C) Ocean Transport
(D) None of these

Answers:
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (C)
91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (A) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D) 110. (B) 111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (B)
116. (*) In given pairs (C) and (D) pairs are incorrect. So this question is wrong.
117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (A)

MP P.S.C. Public Administration (Pre) EXAM 2009

Held on 11-01-2009

1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)

3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)

4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)

5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)

6. By whom was the ‘Managerial Grid’ developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)

7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)

8. The concept of the ‘zone of indifference’ is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)

9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of ‘circular response’ ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)

10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)

11. Who wrote the book ‘Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective’ ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)

12. Who rejected the principles of administration as ‘myths’ and ‘proverbs’ ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)

13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)

14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)

16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)

17. ‘Job loading’ means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

18. The theory of ‘Prismatic Society’ in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)

19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not included in ‘hygiene’ factors in the Herzberg’s two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company’s policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)

21. The ‘Gang-Plank’ refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)

22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)

23. Henry Fayol’s General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)

24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)

26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)

27. The principle of ‘span of control’ means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)

30. In hierarchy, the term ‘scalar’ means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)

31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)

32. One who tells one’s supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)

34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)

36. The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)

37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)

38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)

39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

40. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

41. The system of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)

42. Who says that “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)

43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)

44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)

45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)

47. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)

48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)

49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)

51. The term ‘Performance Budget’ was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)

52. During passing of budget in the Parliament ‘Guilotine’ is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)

53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)

55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)

56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)

57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)

58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)

59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)

60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)

61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)

62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)

63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)

64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)

65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)

66. ‘Position classification’ is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)

67. The civil service was defined as “professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled” by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)

68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)

69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)

70. The ‘spoils system’ in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)

71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)

73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)

74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)

75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)

76. ‘Efficiency record’ method for determining the merit for promotion is practised in—
(A) The USA
(B) France
(C) The UK
(D) Japan
Ans : (A)

77. “Officials make work for each other.” This is said by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Parkinson
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (C)

78. The Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration started functioning at Mussoorie from—
(A) June 12, 1959
(B) Sept. 13, 1959
(C) Sept. 1, 1959
(D) February 12, 1959
Ans : (C)

79. In the USA, the ‘spoils system’ was discarded in favour of the ‘merit principle’ by the followings Act—
(A) Civil Service Reform Act, 1978
(B) Pendleton Act, 1883
(C) Hatch Act, 1939
(D) Civil Service Act of 1853
Ans : (B)

80. Constitutional Safeguards to civil servants in India are ensured by—
(A) Article 310
(B) Article 312
(C) Article 311
(D) Article 315
Ans : (C)

81. ‘Mandamus’ is a writ issued by the Court—
(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other person, to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
Ans : (A)

82. Rajya Sabha in India consists of—
(A) 238 members
(B) 250 members
(C) 254 members
(D) 256 members
Ans : (B)

83. The features of Indian Federal System are—
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written constitution
Now choose the right option—
(A) 2, 3, 5
(B) 1, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 5
Ans : (D)

84. In which of the following articles of the constitution is the term ‘Cabinet’ mentioned ?
(A) Article 74
(B) Article 75
(C) Article 352
(D) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Ans : (C)

85. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor ?
(A) 1/3rd
(B) 1/12 th
(C) 1/8th
(D) 1/6th
Ans : (D)

86. The Public Corporation is—
(A) Accountable to Finance Ministry only
(B) Partially accountable to Parliament
(C) Not accountable to Parliament
(D) Accountable to Parliament
Ans : (D)

87. Who among the following said that, “Company form of public enterprise is a fraud on the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Paul Appleby
(B) Chhagla Commission
(C) Ashok Chanda
(D) Morarjee Desai
Ans : (C)

88. The grants made in advance by the Lok Sabha in respect of estimated expenditure is called—
(A) Token grant
(B) Vote on credit
(C) Exceptional grant
(D) Vote on account
Ans : (D)

89. Impeachment proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be initiated in—
(A) The Lok Sabha
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans : (C)

90. Planning Commission was setup—
(A) Under the Government of India Act, 1935
(B) As per the provisions of the Constitution of India
(C) By a Cabinet resolution
(D) As per the recommendations of the National Development Council
Ans : (C)

91. If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Vice-President of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

92. The duty of Finance Commission is not to recommend upon—
(A) Distribution of taxes between the Union and States
(B) Determination of principles which should govern the grantsin-aid from the Centre to the State
(C) Consideration of new items of revenue to be allocated to States
(D) Any other matter especially referred to the Commission
Ans : (C)

93. The term ‘Federation’ has been used in the Indian Constitution in—
(A) Article 373
(B) Article 280
(C) Article 90
(D) Nowhere
Ans : (D)

94. A Governor can issue an ordinance—
(A) Whenever he likes
(B) Whenever Chief Minister advises him
(C) Whenever the State Legislature is not in session
(D) When the Union Government tells him to do so
Ans : (C)

95. Charged expenditure upon the Consolidated fund of India—
(A) Is submitted to the vote of Parliament
(B) Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya Sabha
(C) Is not submitted for the sanction of the President
(D) Is not submitted to the vote of Parliament
Ans : (D)

96. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the nomination of the Anglo-Indian community in the State Legislative Assembly ?
(A) Article 239
(B) Article 267
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 403
Ans : (C)

97. The principal function of Directorates in a State Government is to—
(A) Undertake policy implementation
(B) Render auxiliary services
(C) Facilitate policy formulation
(D) Promote inter-agency cooperation and coordination
Ans : (A)

98. The District treasury comes under the control of the—
(A) State Government
(B) District Collector
(C) District Treasury Officer
(D) Chief Secretary
Ans : (B)

99. The existence of the Second Chamber (Legislative Council) in the state largely depends on the wishes of the—
(A) People
(B) High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Legislative Assembly
Ans : (D)

100. The Minister-Civil Servant relationship in India emerged as a result of—
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919
(C) Indian Constitution, 1950
(D) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Ans : (B)

101. Village Panchayat is accountable to the—
(A) Panchayat Samiti
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Chairman of the Village Panchayat
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

102. Who among the following is known as ‘the father of local selfgovernment’ in India ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Wellesley
Ans : (C)

103. Ashok Mehta Committee recommended for the establishment of—
(A) Nagar Panchayat
(B) Panchayat Samiti
(C) Mandal Panchayat
(D) Gram Panchayat
Ans : (C)

104. The first municipal corporation in India was set-up at Madras in the year—
(A) 1767
(B) 1687
(C) 1667
(D) 1678
Ans : (B)

105. In the Constitution of India, economic and social planning is included in the—
(A) Union List of the VII Schedule
(B) State List of the VII Schedule
(C) Concurrent List of the VII Schedule
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

106. Which among of the following is not considered as part of the Civil Society ?
(A) Non-Government Organisations
(B) Caste associations
(C) Legislature
(D) Family
Ans : (C)

107. Who conceived the concept of Gram Swaraj ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narain
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Dayanand
Ans : (C)

108. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five year to determine—
(A) Financial resources of the state for placing state’s requirements before the Union Government
(B) Development requirements of the state for formulating State Five Year Plan
(C) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the state government
(D) Pattern of distribution of state’s tax revenue between the state government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grant-in-aid to local bodies
Ans : (D)

109. Reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj bodies seeks to ensure—
(A) Economic welfare of women and children
(B) Gender parity in rural society
(C) Participation of women in public life
(D) Empowerment of women as an individual
Ans : (C)

110. Mayor-in-Council form of government means—
(A) Cabinet form of government at the municipal level
(B) Classical prefectorial form of government at the municipal level
(C) Making Mayor unaccountable to his colleagues
(D) Presidential form of government at the municipal level
Ans : (A)

111. According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be—
(A) 18 years
(B) 23 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 25 years
Ans : (C)

112. Town Area Committee is constituted and governed by—
(A) District Board
(B) State Legislature
(C) Governor
(D) Municipal Council
Ans : (B)

113. The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Karnataka
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)

114. Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats contains—
(A) 18 items
(B) 28 items
(C) 19 items
(D) 29 items
Ans : (D)

115. Which one of the following statements is not correct about civil society organisations ?
(A) They are sovereign bodies
(B) They are voluntary but nonprofit-making agencies
(C) They work in close proximity with people
(D) They create awareness; educate and sensitise people on common issues and act as catalysts of social change
Ans : (A)

116. The ‘Recall’ provision to remove the elected office-bearers from the local self-government institution has been executed in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)

117. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises municipal elections under—
(A) Article 240(1)
(B) Article 241(2)
(C) Article 243(K)
(D) Article 245(D)
Ans : (C)

118. Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institution at all ?
(A) Assam
(B) Tripura
(C) Kerala
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (D)

119. Under which of the Article of the Constitution of India did the District Planning Committee come into existence ?
(A) 243 ZD
(B) 243 ZE
(C) 244 ZD
(D) 242 ZD
Ans : (A)

120. Which of the following is not the duty of a District Magistrate ?
(A) Maintenance of Law and Order
(B) Collection of land revenue
(C) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes
(D) Conduct of local bodies elections
Ans : (D)

M.P. PSC Forest Ranger and Assistant Conservator Exam - 2008

1. Green colour of leaves is due to the presence of—
(A) Iron
(B) Chlorophyll
(C) Etiolin
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. Purity of Milk is measured by—
(A) Hydrometer
(B) Manometer
(C) Lactometer
(D) Thermometer
Ans : (C)

3. Who invented Dynamite ?
(A) Neil Bohr
(B) Alfred Nobel
(C) Homi Bhabha
(D) Lord Chelmsford
Ans : (B)

4. In which state is Khajuraho situated ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

5. World’s largest bird, which can run very fast, is—
(A) Ostrich
(B) Emu
(C) Kiwi
(D) Penguin
Ans : (A)

6. How many Judges are there in International Court of Justice ?
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 9
Ans : (C)

7. In which year the man first landed on Moon ?
(A) 1968
(B) 1969
(C) 1970
(D) 1971
Ans : (B)

8. Radar was invented by—
(A) J. L. Baird
(B) Graham Bell
(C) George Eastman
(D) R. W. Watt
Ans : (D)

9. Which country’s currency is ‘Kyat’ ?
(A) Thailand
(B) Malaysia
(C) Myanmar
(D) Israel
Ans : (C)

10. Pituitary gland is present—
(A) Below the brain
(B) Above the brain
(C) Inside the brain
(D) Not near the brain
Ans : (A)


11. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (C)

12. Rajghat Dam is situated on which river ?
(A) Chambal
(B) Sutlej
(C) Betwa
(D) Narmada
Ans : (C)

13. Which is the largest continent of the world ?
(A) Australia
(B) Asia
(C) North America
(D) Africa
Ans : (B)

14. Salim Ali was associated with ?
(A) Horology
(B) Entomology
(C) Ornithology
(D) Parasitology
Ans : (C)

15. Trachoma is the disease of which organ ?
(A) Throat
(B) Eyes
(C) Liver
(D) Lungs
Ans : (B)

16. Which gas is used in preparation of Soda Water ?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Chlorine
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Carbon
Ans : (C)

17. ‘Universal Donor’ belongs to blood group—
(A) O
(B) A
(C) B
(D) AB
Ans : (A)

18. Viruses lack—
(A) Proteins
(B) Enzymes
(C) Nucleic Acids
(D) Tentacles
Ans : (B)

19. Mammal which can fly—
(A) Whale
(B) Bat
(C) Snake
(D) Hen
Ans : (B)

20. Which king constructed the ‘Sanchi Stupa’ ?
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Ashoka
(C) Pushyamitra Shung
(D) Kanishka
Ans : (B)

21. In which state is the Kudremukh Iron Ore Scheme situated ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

22. In which country is Angle Waterfall situated ?
(A) America
(B) Venezuela
(C) Canada
(D) Australia
Ans : (B)

23. Which country is called the ‘Land of Setting Sun’ ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Britain
(D) New Zealand
Ans : (C)

24. How much % of Nitrogen is present in Atmosphere ?
(A) 10%
(B) 33%
(C) 50%
(D) 78%
Ans : (D)

25. The iron ore mined from Belaidila is exported to which country ?
(A) Japan
(B) Russia
(C) England
(D) Iran
Ans : (A)

26. Which River flows between the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges ?
(A) Godavari
(B) Narmada
(C) Tapti
(D) Chambal
Ans : (B)

27. In which state cashew production is the highest ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following is not a fresh water fish ?
(A) Cod
(B) Eel
(C) Salmon
(D) Trout
Ans : (A)

29. Scientific study of fishes is called—
(A) Herpetology
(B) Lepidopteriology
(C) Ichthyology
(D) Ornithology
Ans : (C)

30. In which state the Dafla and Sinhpo tribes are found ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans : (D)

31. The most important reason for population explosion in India is—
(A) Urbanisation
(B) Increase in birth-rate
(C) Decrease in death-rate
(D) Improvement in health facilities
Ans : (D)

32. How much percentage of Protein is present in Soyabean ?
(A) 30%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 60%
Ans : (B)

33. What is Kharpatwar ?
(A) Harmful and unwanted (Weeds) plants grown in cultivated crops
(B) Unwanted plants on Soil
(C) Harmful grass in Rice Harvest
(D) Useless grass on agricultural land
Ans : (A)

34. Central Rice Research Institute is located at—
(A) Chennai
(B) Cuttak
(C) Kolkata
(D) Rajendranagar
Ans : (B)

35. In India which harvest in highest average product per Hectare ?
(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Bajra
(D) Rice
Ans : (D)

36. At present how many states and centrally administered territories are there in Indian Union ?
(A) 25, 8
(B) 24, 8
(C) 28, 7
(D) 26, 8
Ans : (C)

37. In Rajya Sabha elected members of which state are in greatest number ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

38. So far who has won the Lok Sabha seat with highest number of votes ?
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Ram Vilas Paswan
(D) P. V. Narsimha Rao
Ans : (D)

39. Which state in India first started Employment Guarantee Programme ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Gujarat
(C) Kerala
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (D)

40. Breeder Seed is which stage of Seed Production Cycle ?
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Ans : (B)

41. Which is the biggest Trade Union of India ?
(A) BMS
(B) CITU
(C) INTUC
(D) AITUC
Ans : (A)

42. Steel Ball floats on mercury, because—
(A) Nothing can sink in mercury
(B) Density of mercury is higher than steel
(C) Density of steel is higher than mercury
(D) Ball can not float
Ans : (B)

43. Sun Light takes……time to reach the earth.
(A) 8 seconds
(B) 8 years
(C) 8 minutes
(D) 4 minutes
Ans : (C)

44. pH value of pure water is—
(A) 14
(B) 2
(C) 7
(D) 9
Ans : (C)

45. It burns with blue flame—
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Carbon monoxide
Ans : (A)

46. Deficiency of which vitamin causes Night Blindness ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B1
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D
Ans : (A)

47. Which organ of body is affected first by Nuclear Radiation ?
(A) Liver
(B) Lungs
(C) Bone Marrow
(D) Brain
Ans : (C)

48. How many chromosomes are there in a Bacteria ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Many
(D) Not even one
Ans : (A)

49. Whose milk contains highest protein content ?
(A) Cow
(B) Goat
(C) Sheep
(D) Buffalo
Ans : (C)

50. With which area Dr. V. J. Curian is connected ?
(A) Animal Husbandry
(B) Milk Development Industry
(C) Plant Protection
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

51. Find out that smallest number which is fully divisible by 6, 10, 15 and 18—
(A) 800
(B) 900
(C) 1,000
(D) 1020
Ans : (B)

52. When is ‘World Health Day’ celebrated ?
(A) 12 December
(B) 7 April
(C) 10 October
(D) 23 May
Ans : (B)

53. Which world renowned Mountain peak is called ‘Sagar Matha’ ?
(A) Everest
(B) Nanda Devi
(C) K2
(D) Kanchenjunga
Ans : (A)

54. In India, which city is called ‘Sun City’ ?
(A) Puri
(B) Kohima
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Kanyakumari
Ans : (C)

55. In which area is Bhatnagar Prize given ?
(A) Sports
(B) Film
(C) Science and Technology
(D) Literature
Ans : (C)

56. How many spokes (Tilian) are there in the wheel in India’s National Flag ?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 24
(D) 25
Ans : (C)

57. Which of the following separates Daman from Diu ?
(A) Mahi River
(B) Rann of Kachha
(C) Narmada River
(D) Gulf of Khambhat
Ans : (D)

58. Of the following countries which is situated in the ‘Horn of Africa’ ?
(A) Tunisia
(B) Somalia
(C) Kenya
(D) Sudan
Ans : (B)

59. World’s Wild Ass is found only in—
(A) Rann of Kachchh
(B) Chhota Nagpur
(C) Ladakh
(D) Sunderbans
Ans : (A)

60. Indian Space Research Institute’s Satellite Tracking and Ranging Station is located at—
(A) Kawalur
(B) Hassan
(C) Sriharikota
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans : (B)

61. What is the name of India’s first fast breeder Neutron Reactor located at Kalpakkam ?
(A) Apsara
(B) Dhruv
(C) Poornima
(D) Kamini
Ans : (D)

62. Of which famous woman’s ‘autobiography’ is ‘Golden Girl’ ?
(A) Amrita Shergil
(B) P. T. Usha
(C) Lata Mangeshkar
(D) Nargis Dutt
Ans : (B)

63. What is Tejas ?
(A) Ultramodern Radar
(B) Ultramodern Fighter Battleship
(C) Light Combat Aeroplane
(D) Remote Sensing System
Ans : (C)

64. Sharda Act is related to—
(A) Child Marriage
(B) Sati Pratha
(C) Widow Remarriage
(D) Child Killings
Ans : (A)

65. Out of the following which is concerned with ‘Al Nino’ ?
(A) Labrador Current
(B) Benguela Current
(C) Humboldt Current
(D) Kuro Shiwo Current
Ans : (C)

66. Which separates the main land of India from Rameshwaram Island ?
(A) Pamban Channel
(B) 9Channel
(C) 10Channel
(D) Palk Strait
Ans : (A)

67. What are the main constituents of Biogas ?
(A) Methane + Carbon dioxide
(B) Nitrogen + Butane
(C) Ethane + Butane
(D) Carbon dioxide
Ans : (A)

68. Who gave the name, ‘Indian National Congress’ ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) A. O. Hume
(C) W. O. Bannerji
(D) Dufrin
Ans : (A)

69. Which of the following gas produces ‘Green House Effect’ ?
(A) CO
(B) CO2
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Nitric oxide
Ans : (B)

70. Which of the following is not a Free Trade Zone ?
(A) Kandla
(B) Falta
(C) Santacruz
(D) Pondicherry
Ans : (D)

71. Which of the following connects the Sikyang Province of China and Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (POK) ?
(A) Siachin road
(B) Silk road
(C) Goodwill road
(D) Karakoram road
Ans : (D)

72. Starting from evening 8 O’clock to 2 O’clock at night how many times the hands of the clock shall make right angle ?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 11
(D) 7
Ans : (C)

73. Who constructed the Jagannath Temple at Puri ?
(A) Narsingh Burman
(B) Parmeshwar Burman
(C) Antburman Chodgang
(D) Aadityaburman Chodgang
Ans : (C)

74. In which of the following the ‘Gayatri Mantra’ is included ?
(A) Samveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yagyavalkya
(D) Aitareya Upanishad
Ans : (B)

75. Enzymes are made mostly of the following—
(A) Fats
(B) Protein
(C) Carbonic acids
(D) Carbohydrate
Ans : (B)

76. Out of the following Shiv Samudram water-fall is situated on which River ?
(A) Tungabhadra River
(B) Narmada River
(C) Kaveri River
(D) Chambal River
Ans : (C)

77. In India which of the following has the longest Railway Division ?
(A) Eastern Railway
(B) Western Railway
(C) Northern Railway
(D) Central Railway
Ans : (D)

78. When was life originated on Earth ?
(A) 300 mllion years ago
(B) 3500 million years ago
(C) 1000 million years ago
(D) 4500 million years ago
Ans : (B)

79. What is an Atomic Reactor ?
(A) A Reservoir of Heavy Water
(B) Atomic furnace in which nuclear fission produces heat
(C) A Chemical Reservoir
(D) An Atom Bomb
Ans : (B)

80. In Datia (M.P.) ‘Kudau Singh Music School’ was started in his memory. Kudau Singh was associated with which area of music ?
(A) Bansuri
(B) Tabla
(C) Sitar
(D) Mridang and Pakhawaj
Ans : (D)

81. What is Param 10,000 ?
(A) Radar
(B) Surface to Surface missile
(C) Surface to Air missile
(D) Computer
Ans : (D)

82. In Madhya Pradesh Panna is associated with—
(A) Copper
(B) Gold
(C) Diamond
(D) Mica
Ans : (C)

83. Who was the first Caliph ?
(A) Imam Husain
(B) Abu Bakr
(C) Sulaiman
(D) Constantine
Ans : (B)

84. India is the Chief Exporter of—
(A) Coffee
(B) Mica
(C) Silk
(D) Jute
Ans : (B)

85. Who wrote ‘Arthashashtra’ ?
(A) Bana Bhatta
(B) Kalidas
(C) Kautilya
(D) R. K. Narayan
Ans : (C)

86. Who wrote the book ‘Wings of Fire’ ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Kuldeep Nayar
(C) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(D) J. B. Kriplani
Ans : (C)

87. Which is the National Anthem of India ?
(A) Vande Mataram
(B) Jana Gana Mana
(C) Sare Jahan Se Achchha Hindostan Hamara
(D) Jhanda Uncha Rahe Hamara
Ans : (B)

88. ‘Kiwi’ is the inhabitant of ?
(A) South Africa
(B) Indonesia
(C) Hungary
(D) New Zealand
Ans : (D)

89. Shambhu Maharaj was connected with—
(A) Painting
(B) Kathak dancing
(C) Film Music
(D) Photography
Ans : (B)

90. Who discovered Bacteria ?
(A) Jenner
(B) Leeuwenhock
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Ronald Ross
Ans : (B)

91. After India became independent who suggested that ‘Indian National Congress’ should be dissolved ?
(A) C. Rajgopalachari
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Acharya Kriplani
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan
Ans : (B)

92. Of the following dances which one is performed by single person ?
(A) Kuchipudi
(B) Bharat Natyam
(C) Odissi
(D) Mohiniattam
Ans : (D)

93. Who called ‘Britain is a nation of shop-keepers’ ?
(A) Mussolini
(B) Hitler
(C) Napoleon
(D) Garibaldi
Ans : (C)

94. Who founded, ‘Servants of India Society’ ?
(A) Pandit Hridaya Nath Kunjru
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Shriniwas Shastri
Ans : (B)

95. In which country were the 2008 Olympic Games held ?
(A) China
(B) Australia
(C) Spain
(D) England
Ans : (A)

96. Who was the first Indian Woman to swim across the English Channel ?
(A) Kamaljit Sandhu
(B) Rita Faria
(C) Arti Saha
(D) Shanta Rangaswami
Ans : (C)

97. When was the India’s Communication Satellite INSAT-C3 was launched from Kourou in French Guiana ?
(A) February 28, 2000
(B) May 26, 1999
(C) March 22, 2000
(D) January 24, 2002
Ans : (D)

98. Which country is called the ‘Playground of Europe’ ?
(A) France
(B) Scotland
(C) Netherland
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (D)

99. When was the United Nations Organisation founded ?
(A) October 20, 1945
(B) June 16, 1945
(C) November 11, 1944
(D) October 24, 1945
Ans : (D)

100. Keil Canal links the following—
(A) North Sea and Baltic Sea
(B) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean
(C) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
(D) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
Ans : (A)

101. Name the Indian State having the least population—
(A) Sikkim
(B) Nagaland
(C) Goa
(D) Tripura
Ans : (A)

102. The Hijri Era (Calendar) started in—
(A) 570 A.D.
(B) 1129 A.D.
(C) 622 A.D.
(D) 712 A.D.
Ans : (C)

103. Which of the following is the indicator of Air Pollution ?
(A) Cycas
(B) Algae
(C) Bryophytes
(D) Lichens
Ans : (D)

104. During Dehydration from human body the substance which is usually lost is—
(A) Sugar
(B) Sodium Chloride
(C) Calcium Phosphate
(D) Potassium Chloride
Ans : (B)

105. Where is the Test Tube Baby (Egg) fertilised ?
(A) Outside the body of mother
(B) In the Test Tube
(C) In the Testis of man
(D) It does not take place
Ans : (B)

106. The well known discussion between Nachiketa and Yama is narrated in—
(A) Kathopanishad
(B) Kenopanishad
(C) Mundakopanishad
(D) Chhandogyopanishad
Ans : (A)

107. Haemophilia is a genetic diseases which is caused by—
(A) Fall in Haemoglobin level
(B) Rheumatic Heart
(C) Absence of clotting of blood
(D) White blood cells become less in number
Ans : (C)

108. In Indian Constitution in which ‘Schedule’ there is mention of antidefection laws ?
(A) 10th Schedule
(B) 8th Schedule
(C) 2nd Schedule
(D) 5th Schedule
Ans : (A)

109. In British period in India fast development of Industries did not take place, because—
(A) Absence of Natural Resources
(B) Absence of Foreign Capital
(C) Absence of Heavy Industries
(D) Wealthy people were disinterested in Industries
Ans : (B)

110. When ants bite they inject in human body, this substance which causes pain—
(A) Glacial acetic acid
(B) Formic acid
(C) Methanol
(D) Stearic acid
Ans : (B)

111. Out of the following pairs of States and Tribes which pair is not correct ?
(A) Assam—Miri
(B) Arunachal Pradesh—Apatani
(C) Madhya Pradesh—Lebada
(D) Nagaland—Konyak
Ans : (C)

112. Out of the following which acts as Biofertilizer for better Rice Harvest ?
(A) Rhizobium sp.
(B) Azotobacter sp.
(C) Blue Green Algae
(D) Kawak Mul Kawak
Ans : (C)

113. Song (Rag) which is sung in the morning, is—
(A) Bhoopali
(B) Todi (Bhairavi)
(C) Darbari
(D) Bhimpalasi
Ans : (B)

114. Which is the correct sequence in order of ascending atomic weights of Hydrocarbons ?
(A) Propane, Butane, Ethane, Methane
(B) Methane, Ethane, Propane, Butane
(C) Butane, Propane, Ethane, Methane
(D) Butane, Propane, Methane, Ethane
Ans : (B)

115. Antigen is important for human body because it—
(A) Destroys harmful germs
(B) Is useful in treatment of poisons
(C) Reduces the body temperature
(D) Produces the antibodies
Ans : (D)

116. Night on Venus shall be of how many days ?
(A) 180 Earth days
(B) 135 Earth days
(C) 118 Earth days
(D) 50 Earth days
Ans : (C)

117. Who is associated with Discovery of Cristal Dynamics ?
(A) J. C. Bose
(B) C. V. Raman
(C) C. Ramanujam
(D) H. J. Bhabha
Ans : (B)

118. When an air bubble rises from the bottom of the lake and rises to the surface, its shape shall—
(A) Grow bigger
(B) Become smaller
(C) No change
(D) Become saucer shaped
Ans : (A)

119. Total internal reflection takes place when the ray of light passes through—
(A) Air to glass
(B) Water to glass
(C) Air to water
(D) Diamond to glass
Ans : (D)

120. In liquor poisoning which results in blindness the dangerous substance is—
(A) Methyl alcohol
(B) Ethyl alcohol
(C) Emyl alcohol
(D) Benzyl alcohol
Ans : (A)

Civil Service Exam Papers - Combined Lower Subordinate Exam-Prelimenary

Combined Lower Subordinate (Pre.)

Indian History

1. The officer responsible for the safe custody of land records during the Gupta period was known as—

(A) Dhruvadhikarana

(B) Karanika

(C) Samaharta

(D) Shaulkika

Ans : (B)

2. The Prakrit text Gaudavaho describes the deeds of—

(A) Bhaskaravarman

(B) Isanavarman

(C) Sasanka

(D) Yasovarman

Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following refers to ‘Pushyabhuti’ as the founder of the Vardhana dynasty ?

(A) Kadambari

(B) Harshacharita

(C) Banskhera Inscription of Harsha

(D) Yuan-Chwang

Ans : (B)

4. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of the ‘Maharajadhiraja’ was—

(A) Srigupta

(B) Chandragupta I

(C) Samudragupta

(D) Ghatotkacha

Ans : (B)

5. Which one of the following statements about Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien’s travel in India is not correct ?

(A) He came to India during the reign of Chandragupta II

(B) His object was to visit the holy places of Buddhism

(C) He came by the sea route

(D) He visited whole India and went back to his country by the land route

Ans : (C)

6. Which was the first work to recognise the payment of officers by grants of land ?

(A) Kautilya’s Arthasastra

(B) Indica of Megasthenese

(C) Manusmriti

(D) Harsacharita of Bana

Ans : (C)

7. Below are given the pairs of names of the Dharmashastra-writers and their patrons. Indicate the incorrect match—

(A) Ballalasena – Dharmapala

(B) Hemadri – Yadava Mahadeva

(C) Laxmidhara – Govindachandra Gahadawala

(D) Mitra Misra – Virasinha Bundela

Ans : (A)

8. Who among the following was celebrated with the title of ‘Gangai-Konda’ ?

(A) Rajaraja I

(B) Rajendra I

(C) Mahendravarman I

(D) Kulottunga I

Ans : (B)

9. Which Chola emperor received a letter on golden leaves from the Burmese king Kyanzittha ?

(A) Rajaraja I

(B) Rajendra I

(C) Kulottunga I

(D) Rajadhiraja I

Ans : (C)

10. Who among the following boldly stood for the sacrificial vedic tradition and opposed the theory of Sanyasa ?

(A) Kumarila

(B) Ramanuja

(C) Gaudapada

(D) Yamunacharya

Ans : (A)

11. In the case of a man dying without a son, whom Yajnavalkya places first in order of succession ?

(A) Wife

(B) Daughters

(C) Parents

(D) Brothers

Ans : (A)

12. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given

below—

Assertion (A) : The Gahadawalas had friendly relations with the Cholas.

Reason (R) : A fragmentary Gahadawala inscription has been found incised below an inscription of Kulottunga I.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are ture, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

13. Who among the following Europeans was first to come to India to establish trade relations with their country ?

(A) Dutch

(B) British

(C) Portuguese

(D) French

Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following gives the administrative divisions of the chola kingdom in the correct descending order ?

(A) Mandalam, Valanadu, Kurram

(B) Mandalam, Nadu, Kottam

(C) Kurram, Nadu, Kottam

(D) Nadu, Kurram, Taniyur

Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following was the primary village assembly in the chola village administration ?

(A) Nadu

(B) Sabha

(C) Ur

(D) Mahasabha

Ans : (C)

16. Which one of the following states was a milch-cow for the British ?

(A) Hydrabad

(B) Punjab

(C) Mysore

(D) Avadh

Ans : (D)

17. Match the authors with their books—

(a) Subramanya Bharti

(b) Bhai Vir Singh

(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(d) Michael Madhusudan Dutt

1. Gitanjali

2. Meghnad Badh Kavya

3. Rana Surat Singh

4. Kuyil Pattu

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 4 2 1 3

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 4 3 2 1

Ans : (C)

18. “The emergence of British power in India is from the battle of Buxar.” Who made this statement ?

(A) Sir Stephen

(B) Ramsay Muir

(C) Dr. K. K. Datta

(D) Dr. R. C. Majumdar

Ans : (B)

19. In 1757 Siraj-ud-Daulah attacked British factory at—

(A) Dhaka

(B) Calcutta

(C) Kasimbazar

(D) Murshidabad

Ans : (B)

20. Which Governor of Madras presidency made treaty of Mangalore with Tipu ?

(A) Eyercoote

(B) Stephenson

(C) Wellesely

(D) Lord Macartany

Ans : (D)

21. What was the bone of contention between Nizam Ali, the ruler of Hyderabad and the English ?

(A) Masulipatanam

(B) Karnataka

(C) The Sarkar of Guntur

(D) The Northern Sarkars

Ans : (C)

22. The statement “we have crippled our enemy without making our friends too formidable.” is associated with—

(A) Fourth Anglo-Mysore war

(B) Third Anglo-Mysore war

(C) Second Anglo-Mysore war

(D) First Anglo-Mysore war

Ans : (B)

23. Who among the following Mughal emperors, granted permission to trade free of tax in the territories of Bengal, Hyderabad and Gujarat to the British ?

(A) Muhammad Shah

(B) Aurangzeb

(C) Bahadur Shah

(D) Farrukh Siyar

Ans : (D)

24. Where did the British East India Company open its first factory in India ?

(A) Masulipatanam

(B) Surat

(C) Bharuch

(D) Mumbai

Ans : (B)

25. The Whitley commission was concerned with—

(A) Labour

(B) Education

(C) Public Health

(D) Reorganisation of civil services

Ans : (A)

26. Match the following treaties with the years of their conclusion—

(a) Treaty of Srirangapatnam

(b) Treaty of Sangoli

(c) Treaty of Manglore

(d) Treaty of Rajghat

1. 1792 2. 1806

3. 1816 4. 1784

Find the correct answer from code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 2 1 4

(B) 2 3 1 4

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 1 3 4 2

Ans : (D)

27. Whom did Sir Charles Napier replace as British Resident of Sindh ?

(A) Alexander Burnier

(B) James Outram

(C) Sir John Karne

(D) Sir Eyre Coote

Ans : (B)

28. When was the East India Company brought under the parliamentary control ?

(A) 1773

(B) 1784

(C) 1793

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following Acts created ‘Board of control’ ?

(A) Regulating Act, 1773

(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(C) Act of 1813

(D) Act of 1833

Ans : (B)

30. Which one of the following historians has written about the nature of the movement of 1857 that “It was neither first nor national nor a war of independence.” ?

(A) T. R. Holmes

(B) R. C. Majumdar

(C) S. B. Chaudhuri

(D) G. B. Mallison

Ans : (B)

31. Which one of the following pairs

is not correctly matched ?

(A) Jhansi —Laxmi Bai

(B) Gwalior —Tatya Tope

(C) Kanpur —Nana Saheb

(D) Allahabad —Kunwar Singh

Ans : (D)

32. The official historian of the movement of 1857 was—

(A) S. N. Sen

(B) R. C. Majumdar

(C) Tarachand

(D) V. D. Savarkar

Ans : (A)

33. Match the following associations with their presidents—

(a) British Indian Association, 1851

(b) Deccan Association, 1852

(c) Bombay Association, 1852

(d) British Indian Madras Association, 1850

1. Raja Radhakant Dev

2. Gopal Hari Deshmukh

3. C. Y. Mudaliar

4. Jamshedji Jijabhai

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 1 2 4 3

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 1 2 4 3

Ans : (D)

34. Who had chaired the Indian Education commission in 1882 ?

(A) Macaulay

(B) Sadler

(C) W. W. Hunter

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

35. Who was the founder of Seva Sadan in Bombay ?

(A) Baharamji Malabari

(B) Shiva Narrain Agnihotri

(C) R. G. Bhandarkar

(D) B. K. Jayakar

Ans : (A)

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using codes given below—

List-I

(a) Laxmi Bai

(b) Tatya Tope

(c) Nana Saheb

(d) Bahadur Shah

List-II

1. Deported to Rangoon

2. Fled to Nepal

3. Captured and executed

4. Killed in battle

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 2 4 3 1

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 4 2 3 1

Ans : (A)

37. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Brahmo Samaj – Swami Brahmanand

2. Dev Samaj – Swami Satyanand Agnihotri

3. Arya Samaj – Swami Dayanand

4. Ram Krishna Mission – Swami Ramkrishna Paramhansa

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following journals had conducted a bitter campaign against the abolition of the practice of Sati ?

(A) Sambad Kaumadi

(B) Bangadoot

(C) Samachar Darpan

(D) Samachar Chandrika

Ans : (A)

39. In which of the following places ‘Jatiya Sarkar’ a parallel government was formed during the Quit India Movement ?

(A) Satara

(B) Tamaluk

(C) Ballia

(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

40. Which one of the following was elected as president of Indian National Congress after the resignation of Subhas Chandra Bose ?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya

(C) Sarojini Naidu

(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Ans : (A)

41. The party which observed ‘Black day’ on 3 July, 1947 against partition of India was—

(A) Indian National Congress

(B) Forward Bloc

(C) Hindu Mahasabha

(D) Communist Party of India

Ans : (C)

42. Who was the author of ‘Pather Dabi’ a novel which glorified the path of violent revolution and which was banned by the British Government ?

(A) Premchand

(B) Sharatchandra Chatterji

(C) Bankimchandra Chatterji

(D) Ajai Ghosh

Ans : (B)

43. The newspaper ‘Man in India’ was edited by—

(A) Surjit Chadra Sinha

(B) Ashok Kumar Sarkar

(C) Ram Gopal Maheshwari

(D) Shiv Prasad Gupta

Ans : (A)

44. Who edited “Sahid Bhagat Singh : Dastavejo Ke Aine Mein” ?

(A) Irfan Habib

(B) Malavinder Jit Singh

(C) Chaman Lal

(D) Amalesh Tripathi

Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following writers was not associated with ‘economic nationalism’ ?

(A) R. C. Dutt

(B) G. V. Joshi

(C) Dadabhai Naoroji

(D) Annie Besant

Ans : (D)

46. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Dadabhai Naoroji founded East India Association in London.

Reason (R) : He wanted to influence the British Public Opinion.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

47. Which one of the following was not a member of the Hunter committee set up to enquire into the Jallianwala bagh massacre ?

(A) Lord Hunter

(B) General Dyer

(C) W. F. Rice

(D) Sir Thomas Smith

Ans : (B)

48. Which one of the following was not a slave of Mohammad Ghori ?

(A) Ikhtiyaruddin Bhakhtiyar Khalji

(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz

(C) Qutbuddin Aibak

(D) Shamsuddin Iltutmish

Ans : (D)

49. Who among the following writers has described the seven fold division of the Hindu society ?

(A) Ibn Khordadbah

(B) Abu zaid-Alhasan

(C) Al-Beruni

(D) Utbi

Ans : (A)

50. The foreign invader who plundered somnath temple was—

(A) Mohammad Ghori

(B) Masud III

(C) Muhammad Bin-Qasim

(D) Mahmud Ghaznavi

Ans : (D)

51. The first hand account of conquest of India by Mohammad Ghori and the history of newly established Turkish kingdom is found in which of the following texts ?

(A) Faqra-i-Muddabir

(B) Qamil-ut-Tawarikha

(C) Tabaqat-i-Nasiri

(D) Kitab-ul-Yamini

Ans : (C)

52. Select from the following options, the Arab invader who defeated Dahira, the king of Sindh in 712 A.D.—

(A) Budail

(B) Muhammad-bin-Qasim

(C) Sultan Mahmud

(D) Ubaidullah

Ans : (B)

53. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Diwan-i-Mushtakharaj – Alauddin Khalji

(B) Diwan-i-Amirkohi – Mohammad Tughlaq

(C) Diwan-i-Khairat – Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(D) Diwan-i-Riyasat – Balban

Ans : (D)

54. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Alauddin built the siri fort.

Reason (R) : He wished to safeguard Delhi from Mongol invasions.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

55. The statement “India is not Arabia, it is not practically feasible to convert it into Darul Islam.” is associated with—

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Balban

(C) Alauddin Khalji

(D) Mohammad-Bin-Tughlaq

Ans : (A)

56. With which sultan of Delhi do you associate the compilation of Kingship theory and principles of administration called ‘vassayya’ ?

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Balban

(C) Alauddin Khalji

(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Ans : (B)

57. Which of the following is correct ?

(A) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Khalifa

(B) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Ulema

(C) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Qazi

(D) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Sultan

Ans : (D)

58. Which one of the following works of Amir Khusrau deals with the military expeditions of Alauddin Khalji ?

(A) Nuh Siphar

(B) Khajain-ul-Futuh

(C) Miftah-ul-Futuh

(D) Quairanus Sadain

Ans : (B)

59. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Bahlol’s theory was ‘Kingship is kinship’.

Reason (R) : Bahlol respected Afghan tribal sentiments.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

60. What was the religion of the king Krishnadeva Raya ?

(A) Vaishnavism

(B) Shaivism

(C) Jainism

(D) Buddhism

Ans : (A)

61. In which capacity thousands of women were employed in the empire of Vijayanagar ?

(A) Accountants

(B) Royal bodyguards

(C) Palace guards

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

62. Select the correct chronological order of following reformers of the medieval Bhakti movements by using code given below—

1. Namdeva

2. Vallabhacharya

3. Ramananda

4. Kabir

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1

(C) 3, 4, 1, 2

(D) 4, 1, 2, 3

Ans : (C)

63. Who was the founder of Pushti marg ?

(A) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

(B) Vallabhacharya

(C) Madhavacharya

(D) Yamunacharya

Ans : (B)

64. Who was the founder of Qalandariya sect ?

(A) Skeikh Badiuddin Shah

(B) Kutubuddin Kalandar

(C) Shah Abdullah

(D) Abdul Aziza Makki

Ans : (D)

65. In which Hindu Kingdom of medieval India the image of deity Tirupati or Lord Venkateshvara has been depicted on its gold coins ?

(A) The Vijayanagar Empire

(B) The Kingdom of Hoyasalas of Dwarasamudra

(C) The Kingdom of Kakathiyas of Warrangal

(D) The Kingdom of Yadavas of Devagiri

Ans : (A)

66. Who built the city of Nagalapura ?

(A) Bukka I

(B) Devaraya I

(C) Krishnadeva Raya

(D) Virupaksha

Ans : (C)

67. In which language did Babur wrote his autobiography ?

(A) Farsee

(B) Arabi

(C) Turki

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

68. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Akbar was the greatest among the Mughal emperors and one among the

great rulers of India.

Reason (R) : He was an ambitious ruler.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

69. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—

List-I (Sufi order)

(a) Qadiriya order

(b) Firdausiya order

(c) Chistiya order

(d) Suhrawardia order

List-II (Sufi Saints)

1. Khwaja Nizamuddin

2. Shaikh Shahabuddin

3. Shaikh Sharfuddin Yahya Manairi

4. Shaikh Abdul Qadir Gilani

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 4 3 1

(B) 3 2 4 1

(C) 1 3 2 4

(D) 4 3 1 2

Ans : (D)

70. To whom did Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya bestow the title of ‘Ain-i-Hind (Mirror of India) ?

(A) Shaikh Sirajuddin Usmani

(B) Shaikh Nasiruddin Chirag Dehlavi

(C) Khwaja Syed Muhammad Gesudaraj

(D) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakaria

Ans : (C)

71. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Mughal emperors from Humayun to Jahangir were obsessed with ‘Nur’ or light.

Reason (R) : They considered kingship as a light emanating from God to king.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is the true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—

List-I (Years)

(a) 1527 A.D.

(b) 1540 A.D.

(c) 1565 A.D.

(d) 1575 A.D.

List-II (Events)

1. Battle of Tukarai

2. Battle of Talikota

3. Battle of Kanwah

4. Battle of Kannauj

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 4 1 3 2

Ans : (C)

73. When was the famous ‘Treaty of Chittor’ signed during the reign of Jahangir ?

(A) 1605 A.D.

(B) 1610 A.D.

(C) 1615 A.D.

(D) 1620 A.D.

Ans : (C)

74. Which Mughal emperor wrote a will and instructed his sons, that they continue Asad Khan as the vazir ?

(A) Akbar

(B) Jahangir

(C) Shahjahan

(D) Aurangzeb

Ans : (D)

75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the code given below the lists—

List-I (Year)

(a) 1627 A.D.

(b) 1659 A.D.

(c) 1666 A.D.

(d) 1674 A.D.

List-II (Events)

1. Shivaji crowned himself at Raigarh and assumed title of Maharaja Chhatrapati.

2. Escape of Shivaji from Agra.

3. Birth of Shivaji.

4. Afzal, Khan was killed by Shivaji.

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 3 4 2 1

(C) 3 2 1 4

(D) 1 3 4 2

Ans : (B)

76. Which one of the following statements isnot correct about the Mughal paintings ?

(A) The Mughal school of painting represents one of the most significant phases of Indian art.

(B) Akbar patronized both Persian and Indian painters.

(C) The Mughal school of painting was always under foreign influence.

(D) Jahangir had also taken much interest to promote the Mughal painting.

Ans : (C)

77. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

Emperor Name

(A) Babur : Zahiruddin Muhammad

(B) Humayun : Nasiruddin Muhammad

(C) Akbar : Jalaluddin Muhammad

(D) Jahangir : Muhiuddin Muhammad

Ans : (D)

78. What was ‘Paga’ in the Maratha administration ?

(A) Independent soldiers

(B) State dependant soldiers

(C) Professional soldiers

(D) Soldiers of other country

Ans : (B)

79. Which one of the following Harappan sites provides the evidence of the fire-alters ?

(A) Alamgirpur

(B) Banavali

(C) Kalibangan

(D) Kunal

Ans : (C)

80. Which of the following Harappan city sites had bipartite division – high citadel and lower town ?

1. Harappa

2. Mohenjodaro

3. Kalibangan

4. Surkotada

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following wives of Shivaji became sati ?

(A) Puttabai

(B) Sakawarbai

(C) Soyrabai

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

82. Which one of the following statements isnot correct about Shivaji ?

(A) He was simple and religious in his personal life

(B) He did not force any Muslim to embrace Hinduism

(C) He forced prisoners of war to become slave

(D) He organised Marathas against Mughal empire

Ans : (C)

83. Who among the following priests, led the confederacy of the ten kings against Sud-asa ?

(A) Visvamitra

(B) Vasishtha

(C) Bharadwaja

(D) Gritsamada

Ans : (A)

84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—

List-I

(a) Rigveda

(b) Yajurveda

(c) S-amaveda

(d) Atharvaveda

List-II

1. Gopatha Brahamana

2. Satapatha Brahmana

3. Aitareya Brahmana

4. Tandya Brahmana

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 4 3 1

(B) 3 2 4 1

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 1 3 2 4

Ans : (B)

85. Which one of the following statements about the Indus Civilization is correct ?

(A) The authors of the Indus Valley Civilization had no trade relations with countries outside India

(B) The authors of the Indus Valley Civilization did not worship Gods and Goddesses

(C) The Indus Valley people know how to construct carts

(D) The Indus Valley people were not familiar with cotton

Ans : (C)

86. Which of the Vedic Gods is described as supervising the moral order ?

(A) Indra

(B) Varuna

(C) Rudra

(D) Vishnu

Ans : (B)

87. What was main contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy ?

(A) The doctrine of rebirth

(B) The doctrine of Syadvada

(C) The doctrine of immortality of soul

(D) The doctrine of Brahma is nirguna

Ans : (B)

88. Arrange in a chronological sequence the following varsavasas of Gautam Buddha during the first decade of his enlightenment—

1. Kausambi

2. Rajagriha

3. Risipattana

4. Vaisali

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(A) 2, 1, 3, 4

(B) 3, 4, 2, 1

(C) 4, 3, 1, 2

(D) 3, 2, 4, 1

Ans : (D)

89. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—

List-I (Jain Tirthankara)

(a) Ajit Nath

(b) Vimal Nath

(c) Shanti Nath

(d) Parshava Nath

List-II (Birth Place)

1. Kashi

2. hastinapur

3. Kampilya

4. Ayodhya

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 4 3 2 1

Ans : (D)

90. The Jain Tirthankara Mahavira has been mentioned in the early Buddhist Literature as—

(A) Nigantha Nataputta

(B) Vardhamana

(C) Vesaliya

(D) Videhaputta

Ans : (A)

91. Which of the following inscriptions proves Chandragupta Maurya’s conquest of Saurashtra ?

(A) Ashoka’s rock edict of Shahbajgarhi

(B) Ashoka’s rock edict of Mansehra

(C) Seventh pillar edict of Ashoka

(D) Junagarh rock edict of Rudradamana

Ans : (D)

Ans : (D)

92. The Syrian ambassador who visited the court of Bindusara was—

(A) Dionysus

(B) Daimachus

(C) Hegesander

(D) Athenaus

Ans : (B)

93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—

List-I (Ashoka’s contemporary rulers)

(a) Antiyoka

(b) Antikini

(c) Maka

(d) Turamaya

List-II (Countries where they ruled)

1. Cyrene

2. Egypt

3. Macedonia

4. Syria

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 4 2 3

(B) 2 1 3 4

(C) 3 2 4 1

(D) 4 3 1 2

Ans : (D)

94. Which of the following is not a text of Buddhism ?

(A) Jatakas

(B) Acharangasutra

(C) Dighnikaya

(D) Sumangalavilasini

Ans : (B)

95. Who among the following has been considered a Lady Tirthankara in the Svetambara

tradition ?

(A) Sumatinatha

(B) Santinatha

(C) Mallinatha

(D) Kunthunatha

Ans : (C)

96. Which of the following inscriptions of the time of Kanishka indicates that his empire was extended upto Champa in the east ?

(A) Sarnath Inscription

(B) Saheth-Maheth inscription

(C) Rabataka inscription

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

97. Who captured the famous ‘silk route’ of central Asia ?

(A) Ashoka

(B) Kanishka

(C) Menander

(D) Harsha

Ans : (B)

98. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given

below—

Assertion (A) : Bacchanalian scenes are also found in Mathura art.

Reason (R) : The Mathura artists were aware of the Gandhara art tradition.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are ture, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (D)

99. What was the function of the officer known as ‘Gopa’ during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya ?

(A) He was incharge of a Janapada

(B) He was incharge of a group of villages

(C) He was incharge of a Dronamukha

(D) He was the president of a municipal board

Ans : (B)

100. Which of the following Mauryan pillars were surmounted by lion capital ?

1. Koluha Pillar

2. Lauriya Nandangarh Pillar

3. Sanchi Pillar

4. Sarnath Pillar

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 2 and 3

Ans : (A)