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Engineering Assistants in DD and AIR Model Paper 2010-1

Written test of two hours duration one paper having 175 objective type questions based on the syllabus of three years Diploma/B.Sc (Physics) 25 objective type questions on General Knowledge and Current Affairs. Each question will carry two marks. Negative marking will be resorted for wrong answer. One mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.

1. A particle is moving uniformly with an angular velocity ? on the circumference of a circle of
radius r. The linear velocity will be given by
(a) r?
(b)2?r?
(c) r/?
(d) ?/r
Ans:a
2. Line spectrum is obtained from the?
(a) Sun
(b) Filament of the bulb
(c) Mercury lamp
(d) Burning coal
Ans:c
3. A moving charge produces:
(a) neither electric field nor magnetic field
(b) electro-static field only
(c) magnetic field only
(d) both magnetic and electro-static fields
Ans:c
4. ?, ? and ?rays emitted from a radioactive source are passed through a 0.5 cm. thick aluminum
sheet. The out going radiations will consist of:
(a) ?, ? and ?ray
(b) ? and ?ray
(c) ?ray
(d) ?rays
Ans:b
5. Light year is a unit of
(a) time
(b) distance
(c) velocity
(d) acceleration
Ans:b
6. It is easier to draw up wooden block along an inclined plane than bang it up vertically
principally because:
(a) the friction is reduced
(b) only a part of the weight has to be overcome
(c) the mass becomes smaller
(d) g becomes smaller
Ans:b
7. If a piece of ice floating on the surface of water in a beaker melts completely, the level of
water
(a) rises
(b) remains the same
(c) falls
(d) initially rises and then falls
Ans:b
8. A Kelvin thermometer and a Fahrenheit thermometer used to record temperature of melting
metal, read the same. What will a celcius thermometer read at that temperature?
(a) 301.25°
(b) 273°
(c) 457°
(d) 760°
Ans:a
9. A hydrogen-filled balloon expands as it rises and may even burst after rising very high in the
atmosphere. This happens because:
(a) the temperature increases with height
(b) the temperature decreases with height
(c) the atmospheric pressure increases with height
(d) the atmospheric pressure decreases with height
Ans:d
10. if two substances of equal volumes but of different densities are dropped from the same
height simultaneously, then
(a) the body of lower density will reach the earth earlier
(b) both the bodies will reach the earth simultaneously
(c) The body of higher density will reach earlier
(d) It depends upon the place
Ans:b
11. When the bob of a pendulum is at the mean position (minimum displacement) of its motion,
its total energy is:
(a) all potential
(b) zero
(c) all kinetic
(d) partly kinetic partly potential
Ans:c
12. A red and a green pencil are taken in a room illuminated with green light. In the room:
(a) both pencils will appear dark
(b) pencils will appear as red and green respectively
(c) red pencil.will appear dark and green pencil as green
(d) red pencil will appear red and green pencil dark
Ans:c
13. The consumption of electrical energy in the household is measured in terms of:
(a) Kilowatt hour
(b) Kilowatts
(c) Joules
(d) Kilo Joules
Ans:a
14. A magnet is placed in earth’s magnetic field with north pole of the magnet pointing north. At
the neutral point:
(a) the earth’s magnetic field is zero
(b) the magnet’s magnetic field is zero
(c) the fields of the magnet and the earth are equal and in the same direction
(d) the fields of the magnet and the earth are equal and opposite
Ans:d
15. Sudden fall of a barometer reading indicates:
(a) storm
(b) dry weather
(c) fine weather
(d) cold weather
Ans:a
16. If a ball and a rectangular block of different metal when completely immersed in a liquid,
have the same loss of weight, then
(a) ball and rectangular block have same density
(b) ball and rectangular block have Weight in air
(c) ball and rectangular block have same volume
(d) ball and rectangular block have immersed to the same depth
Ans:c
17. If the period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is 4 seconds and we want to convert it into a
second pendulum, then we have to:
(a) make the length of the pendulum one fourth of the previous length
(b) double the length of the pendulum
(c) make the length of the pendulum half of the previous length
(d) double the mass of the bob
Ans:a
18. The escape velocity of a body from the earth depends upon:
(a) mass of the body
(b) radius of the earth as well as the value of g
(c) the radius of the earth only
(d) volume of the body
Ans:b
19. A cyclist taking a turn bends inside because:
(a) he feels pleasure in doing so
(b) he increases speed in doing so
(c) he obtains necessary Centripetal force
(d) he avoids accidents
Ans:c
20. If the surface of water in a lake is just going to freeze, then the temperature of water at the
bottom is
(a) 0°C
(b) 4°C
(c) 3°C
(d) none of these
Ans:b
21. The tangent law is applicable only when:
(a) there are at least two magnetic fields
(b) there two uniform magnetic fields mutually perpendicular to each other
(c) one strong magnetic field and the other weak magnetic field
(d) in the present magnetic fields one should be horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic
field
Ans:b
22. A moving coil galvanometer is converted into an ammeter by putting:
(a) a high resistance in parallel
(b) a low resistance in series
(c) a low resistance in parallel
(d) a high resistance in series
Ans:c
23. Lenz’s law is derived from the law of conservation of:
(a)momentum
(b) energy
(c)charge
(d) magnetism
Ans:b
24. On which one of the factors does the sensivity of a galvanometer depend?
(a) number of the turns of the coil
(b) the temperature of the room
(c) the current flowing in it
(d) the potential difference between the two ends.
Ans:a
25. The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of:
(a) 0.1 cm
(b) 10 2cm
(c)10 -4cm
(d)10 -8cm
Ans:d
26. Lamps used for street lighting are connected in
(a) parallel
(b) series and parallel both
(c) series
(d) none of the above
Ans:a
27. A. C. can be measured with the help of:
(a) moving coil galvanometer
(b) hot wire ammeter
(c) tangent galvanometer
(d) galvanometer
Ans:b
28.A p-n junction is said to be forward biased, when
(a) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the p-semiconductor and negative pole to the nsemiconductor
(b) the positive pole of the battery is joined to the n-semiconductor and negative pole of the
battery is joined to the p-semiconductor
(c) the positive pole of the battery is connected to n- semiconductor and p- semiconductor
(d) a mechanical force is applied in the forward direction
Ans :a
29. At absolute zero, Si acts as ?
(a) non-metal
(b) metal
(c) insulator
(d) none of these
Ans :a
30. When N-type semiconductor is heated ?
(a) number of electrons increases while that of holes decreases
(b) number of holes increases while that of electrons decreases
(c) number of electrons and holes remain same
(d) number of electron and holes increases equally.
Ans :d
31. Radiowaves of constant amplitude can be generated with
(a) FET
(b) filter
(c) rectifier
(d) oscillator
Ans :d
32. In a common base amplifier the phase difference between the input signal voltage and the
output
voltage is ?
(a) 0
(b) pi/4
(c)pi/2
(d) p
Ans :d
33. When a triode is used as an amplifier the phase difference between the input signal voltage
and the output is ?
(a) 0
(b)pi
(c) pi/2
(d)pi/4
Ans :b
34. The depletion layer in the P-N junction region is
caused by?
(a) drift of holes
(b) diffusion of charge carriers
(c) migration of impurity ions
(d) drift of electrons
Ans: b
35. The following truth table corresponds to which Logic gate
A B Output
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
(a)NAND
(b) OR
(c)AND
(d) XOR
Ans :b
36. To use a transistor as an amplifier
(a) The emitter base junction is forward biased and the base collector junction is reversed biased
(b) no bias voltage is required
(c) both junction are forward biased
(d) both junctions are reversed biased.
Ans :a
37. Which one of the following is the weakest kind of the bonding in solids
(a) ionic
(b) metallic
(c) Vander Walls
(d) covalent
Ans :c
38.For amplification by a triode, the signal to be amplified is given to
(a) the cathode
(b) the grid
(c) the glass-envelope
(d) the anode
Ans :b
39. A piece of copper and other of germanium are cooled from the room temperature to 80K,
then
(a) resistance of each will increase
(b) resistance of copper will decrease
(c) the resistance of copper will increase while that of germanium will decrease
(d) the resistance of copper will decrease while that of germanium will increase
Ans:d
40. Diamond is very hard because ?
(a) it is covalent solid
(b) it has large cohesive energy
(c) high melting point
(d) insoluble in all solvents
Ans:b
41. The part of the transistor which is heavily doped to produce large number of majority carriers
is
(a) emitter
(b) base
(c) collector
(d) any of the above depending upon the nature of transistor
Ans:a
42. An Oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with
(a) positive, feedback
(b) negative feedback
(c)large gain
(d) no feedback
Ans:a
43. When a P-N junction diode is reverse biased the flow of current across the junction is mainly
due
to
(a) diffusion of charge
(b) drift charges
(c) depends on the nature o material
(d) both drift and diffusion of charges
Ans:b
44. Which of the following gates corresponds to the truth table given below?
A B Output
1 1 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
0 0 1
(a) NAND
(b) OR
(c) AND
(d) XOR
Ans:a
45. Which of the following, when added as an impurity, into the silicon, produces n-type semi
conductor
(a)Phosphorous
(b) Aluminium
(c)Magnesium
(d) both ‘b’ and ‘c’
Ans:a
46. The current gain for a transistor working as common-base amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter
current is 7.2 mA, then the base current is
(a)0.29mA
(b)0.35mA
(c)0.39 mA
(d) 0.43 mA
Ans:a
47. When a n-p-n transistor is used as an amplifier then ?
(a) the electrons flow from emitter to collector
(b) the holes flow from emitter to collector
(c) the electrons flow from collector to emitter
(d) the electrons flow from battery to emitter
Ans:a
48. When arsenic is added as an impurity to silicon, the resulting material is?
(a) n-type semiconductor
(b) p-type semiconductor
(c) n-type conductor
(d) Insulator
Ans:a
49. To obtain a p-type germanium semiconductor,it must be doped with ?
(a)arsenic
(b)antimony
(c)indium
(d)phosphorus
Ans:a
50. A semi-conducting device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A
current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current
drops to almost zero. The device may be
(a) A p-n junction
(b) An intrinsic semi-conductor
(c) A p-type semi-conductor
(d) An n-type semi-conductor
Ans:a
51. The transfer ratio beta of a transistor is 50. The input resistance of the transistor when used in
the common emitter configuration is 1 kOhm. The peak value of the co current for an A.C. input
voltage of 0.01 V peak is ?
(a)100 microA
(b) 0.01 mA
(c)0.25 mA
(d) 500 microA
Ans:d
52. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n diode is ?
(a) Depletion of positive charges near the junction
(b) Concentration of positive charges near the junction
(c) Depletion of negative charges near the junction
(d) Concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction
Ans:d
53. In forward bias, the width of potential barrier in a p-n junction diode?
(a)increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases then decreases
Ans:b
54. A depletion lay consists of?
(a)electrons
(b) protons
(c)mobile ions
(d) immobile ions
Ans:d
55. Which of the following when added acts as an impurity into silicon produced n-type semi
conductor?
(a)P
(b) Al
(c)B
(d) Mg
Ans:a
56. In a junction diode, the holes are due to
(a) protons
(b) extra electrons
(c) neutrons
(d) missing electrons
Ans:d
57. The intrinsic semiconductor becomes an insulator at
(a)0°C
(b)0K
(c) 300K
(d) —100°C
Ans:b
58. For a common emitter circuit if IC/IE = 0.98 then current gain for common emitter circuit will
be
(a)49
(b)98
(e)4.9
(d) 25.5
Ans:a
59. In a p-n junction
(a) The potential of the p and n sides becomes higher alternately
(b) The p side is at higher electrical potential than the n side
(c) The n side is at higher electrical potential than the p side
(d) Both the p and n sides are at the same potential
Ans:b
60. In the case of a common emitter transistor amplifier the ratio of the collector current to the
emitter current Ic/Ie is 0.96. The current gain of the amplifier is ?
(a)6
(b)48
(c) 24
(d) 12
Ans:c
61. if a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 5oHz mains, the fundamental frequency in the
tipple will be
(a)100Hz
(b) 25Hz
(c)50Hz
(d) 70.7 Hz
Ans:a
62. A n-p-n transistor conducts when ?
(a) both collector and emitter are negative with respect to, the base
(b) both collector and emitter are positive with respect to the base
(c) collector is positive and emitter is negative with to the base
(d) collector is positive and emitter is at same potential as the base
Ans:c
63. Barrier potential of a p-n junction diode does not depend on?
(a)doping density
(b) diode design
(c)temperature
(d) forward bias
Ans:b
64. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode
(a) increases the minority carrier current
(b) lowers the potential barrier
(c) raises the potential barrier
(d) increases the majority carrier current
Ans:c
65. In semiconductors at a room temperature
(a) the conduction band is completely empty
(b) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
(c) the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled
(d) the valence band is completely filled
Ans:c
66. The output of OR gate is 1 when?
(a) if either input is zero
(b) if both inputs are zero
(c) if either or both inputs are 1
(d) only if both inputs are I
Ans:c
67. In a p-n junction photo cell, the value of the photo-electromotive force produced by
monochromatic light is proportional to ?
(a) the voltage applied at the p-n junction
(b) the barrier voltage at the p-n junction
(c) the intensity of the light falling on the cell
(d) the frequency of the light falling on the cell
Ans:c
68. Choose the only false statement from the following.
(a) in conductors the valence and conduction bands may overlap.
(b) Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are insulators.
(c) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.
(d) The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature.
Ans:c
69. Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and
conduction bands are separated by energy band gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge
respectively. Which one of the following relationship is true in their case?
(a) (Eg)C> (Eg)Si
(b) (Eg)C< (Eg)Si (c) (Eg)C=(Eg)Si (d) (Eg)C< (Eg)Ge Ans:a 70. Application of a forward bias to a p—n junction (a) widens the depletion zone. (b) increases the potential difference across the depletion zone. (c) increases the number of donors on the n side. (d) increases the electric field in the depletion zone. Ans:c 71. Zener diode is used for? (a) Amplification (b) Rectification (c) Stabilisation (d) Producing oscillations in an oscillator Ans:c 72. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its plane becomes ? (a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field (b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the magnetic field (c) parallel to the magnetic field (d) perpendicular to magnetic field Ans:c 73. Tesla is the unit of (a) magnetic flux (b) magnetic field (c) magnetic induction (d) magnetic moment Ans:b 74. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of ? (a) electric field (b) magnetic field (c) dielectric strength (d) heat Ans:b 75. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in magnetic field depends on? (a) the rate of change of magnetic flux (b) initial magnetic flux only (c) the total change in magnetic flux (d) final magnetic flux only. Ans:c 76. The magnetic induction at a point P which is at the distance of 4 cm from a long current carrying wire is 10-3 T. The field of induction at a distance 12 cm from the current will be ? (a) 3.33 x 10-4 T (b) 1.11x 10-4 T (c) 3×10-3 T (d) 9×10-3 T Ans:a 77. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in negative X-direction. As a result, the charge will (a) remain unaffected (b) start moving in a circular path in Y—Z plane (c) retard along X-axis (d) moving along a helical path around X-axis Ans:a 78. A uniform magnetic field acts right angles to the direction of motion of electrons. As a result, the electron moves in a circular path of radius 2cm. If the speed of electrons is doubled, then the radius of the circular path will be ? (a)2.0 cm (b) 0.5 cm (c)4.0cm (d) 1.0cm Ans:c 79. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane perpendicular to magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with the same B is (a)25 keV (b) 50 keV (c)200 keV (d) 100 keV Ans:d 80. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 Tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is ? (a) 2.4N (b) 1.2N (c) 3.0 N (d) 2.0 N Ans:b 81. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one needs to connect a ? (a) low resistance in parallel (b) high resistance in parallel (c) low resistance in series (d) high resistance in series. Ans:a 82. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field (a) torque is formed (B) e.m.f is induced (c) both (a) and (b) are correct (d) none of the above Ans:a 83. The magnetic field at a distance ‘r’ from a long wire carrying current ‘i’ is 0.4 Tesla. The magnetic field at a distance ‘2r’ is ? (a)0.2Tesla (b) 0.8 Tesla (c)0.1 Tesla (d) 1.6 Tesla Ans:a 84. A electron enters a region where magnetic (B) and electric (E) fields are mutually perpendicular, then ? (a) it will always move in the direction of B (b) it will always move in the direction of E (c) it always possesses circular motion (d) it can go un deflected also. Ans:d 85. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of I mm diameter carrying same current. The strength of magnetic field far away is? (a) twice the earlier value (b) same as the earlier value (c) one-half of the earlier value (d) one-quarter of the earlier value Ans:b 86. At what distance from a long straight wire carrying a current of 12 A will the magnetic field be equal to 3×10-6 Wb/metre Square (a) 8×10-2 m (b) 12×10-2 m (c)18x 10-2 m (d) 24×10-2 m Ans:a 87. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to ? (a) ?(B/v) (b) B/v (c) ?(v/B) (d)v/B Ans:d 88. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a uniform field at magnetic induction 10-4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 gauss). The orbital radius of the electron is ? (a) 12cm (b) 16cm (c) 11cm (d) 18cm Ans:c 89. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have? (a) a low resistance in series with its coil. (b) a high resistance in parallel with its coil (c) a high resistance in series with its coil (d) a low resistance in parallel with its coil Ans:c 90. A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a region having simultaneous perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of strength 20 Vm-1 and 0.5 T respectively at right angles to the direction of motion of the electrons. Then the velocity of electrons must be? (a) 8m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 40m/s (d) 1/40 m/s Ans:c 91. A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ohms gives full scale deflection with a current of 0.004 A. To convert it into an ammeter of range 1 A, the required shunt resistance should be? (a) 0.38 Ohms (b) 0.21 Ohms (c) 0.08 Ohms (d) 0.05 Ohms Ans:c 92. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is ? (a) 4B (b) B/2 (c) B (d) 2B Ans:c 93. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. The particle will (a) continue to move due east (b) move in a circular orbit with its speed unchanged (c) move in a circular orbit with its speed increased (d) gets deflected vertically upwards. Ans:b 94. Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 metre. Both of them carry one ampere of current The force of attraction per unit length between the two wires is? (a)2 x10-7 N/m (b) 2 x10-8 N/m (c) 5×10-8 N/m (d)10-7 N/m Ans:a 95. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 ohms is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If the total current is 1 amp, the part of it passing through the shunt will be? (a)0.25 amp (b) 0.8 amp (c)0.2 amp (d) 0.5 amp Ans:b 96. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then from the same length a coil of two turns is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic inductions at their centres will be? (a)2:1 (b)1:4 (c)4:1 (d)1:2 Ans:b 97. Magnetic field intensity in the centre of coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of 2A is ? (a) 0.5 x 10-5 T (b) 1.25x 10-4 T (c) 3x 10-5 T (c) 4 x 10-5 T Ans:b 98. When a proton is accelerated through I V, then its kinetic energy will be? (a)1840 eV (b) 13.6eV (c)1 eV (d) 0.54eV Ans:c 99. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current,thin magnetic field is produced (a)inside the pipe only (b)outside the pipe only (c)both inside and outside the pipe (d) no where Ans:b 100. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the (a) velocity remains unchanged (b) speed of the particle remains unchanged (c) direction of the particle remains unchanged (d) acceleration remains unchanged Ans:b 101. Which one of the following physical quantities, is not defined in the terms of force per unit area: (a) pressure (b) strain (c) stress (d) Young’s modulus Ans:b 102. The distance moved by a moving body is equal to: (a) area between the distance-time graph and distance axis (b) area between the speed-time graph and time axis (c) area between the distance-time graph and time axis (d) area between the speed-time graph and distance axis. Ans:b 103. A beaker containing water weighs 100 gm. It is placed on the pan of a balance and a piece of metal weighing 70 gm. and having a volume of 10cc. is placed inside the water in the beaker. The weight of the beaker and the metal would be : (a) 170gm. (c) 100gm. (b)160gm. (d)30gm. Ans:a 104. For the same kinetic energy, the momentum shall be maximum for: (a) electron (b) proton (c) deuteron (d) alpha particle Ans:d 105. The common balance works on the principle of equality of: (a) forces (b) moments of forces (c) masses (d) masses of pans Ans:b 106. A particle moves in a circle of radius R with a constant speed under a centripetal force F. The work done in completing a full circle is: (a) 2RF (b) ?R2F (c) 2?RF (d)Zero Ans:d 107. When two quantities are plotted on the graph paper against each other and the result so obtained is a st. line, then (a) Both the quantities are equal (b) The quantities are inversely proportional to each other (c) Sum of both is zero (d) The quantities are proportional to each other Ans:d 108. What is the order of magnitude of 260°? (a)103 (b) 104 (c)102 (d) 10 Ans:c 109. The maximum value of g is: (a) At the poles (b) At the top of the Mount Everest (c) At the equator (d) Below the sea level Ans:a 110. A fixed volume of gas at 27°C exerts a pressure of 750 mm. If the gas is heated to a pressure of 1500mm., temperature must be: (a) 600°C (b) 327°C (c) 54°C (d) 13.5°C Ans:b 111. A body of mass 2 kg acted upon by a constant force, travels a distance of 3 metres in the first second and a further distance of meter in the next second. The force acting on the body is? (a) 12 Newtons (b) 8 Newtons (c) 4 Newtons (d) 1 Newton Ans:c 112. Two forces each equal to P acting at a point have no resultant. The angle between the two forces must be equal to: (a)180° (b) 90° (c)0° (d) 120° Ans:a 113. A jet engine works on the principle of: (a) conservation of energy (b) conservation of momentum (c) conservation of mass (d) conservation of temperature Ans:b 114. A sharp knife cuts much better than a blunt one because? (a) Area of sharp knife is much less than the area of the blunt one (b) sharp knife is brighter (c) sharp knife is colder (d) sharp knife is costly Ans:a 115. A man carries a heavy box on his head on a horizontal plane from one place to another. In this he does? (a) maximum work (b) no work (c) negative work (d) minimum work Ans:b 116. The bob of a second’s pendulum is replaced by another bob of double mass. The new time period will be: (a) 4 sec. (c) 2 sec. (b) 1 sec (d) 3 sec. Ans:c 117.A device for measuring temperatures at a distance is (a) gas thermometer (b) mercury thermometer (c) radiation (d) maximum-minimum thermometer Ans:c 118. A piece of ice is floating in a concentrated solution of common salt (in water) in a pot. When ice melts completely, the level of solution will: (a) go up (b) remain the same (c) go down (d) first go up then go down Ans:a 119. A radioactive source has a half-life of 30 days. During a period of 90 days the fraction of atoms that have decayed would be (a)100% (b) 87.5% (c)64% (d) 50% Ans:b 120. A black body emits: (a) radiations of all wavelengths (b) no radiations (c) radiations of only one wavelength (d) radiations of selected wavelengths Ans:a 121. A near sighted person cannot see distinctly beyond 50 cm. from his eye. The power in diopter of spectacle lenses which will enable him to see distant objects clearly is (a) +50 (b) —50 (c) +2 (d) —2 Ans:c 122. Size of a nucleus is of the order of? (a)10-18m (b) 10-14m (c)10-10m (d) 10-6m Ans:b 123. The freezing point on a thermometer is marked as 20° and the boiling point as 150°C. A temperature of 60°C on this thermometer will be read as: (a)40° (b) 65° (c)98° (d) 110° Ans:c 124. In isothermal expansion of an ideal gas: (a) heat content remains constant (b) temperature remains constant (c) both heat content and temperature remain constant (d) pressure and temperature of the gas remain constant Ans:b 125. A man standing between two cliffs hears the first echo of a sound after 2 sec. and the second echo 3 sec. after the initial sound. If the speed of sound be 330 m/sec. the distance between the two cliffs should be (a)1650 m. (b)990 m. (c)825 m (d) 660 m. Ans:c 126. In a resonance tube experiment the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm. of air column and the second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is equal to? (a)0.5 cm (b)1.0 cm (c)1.5 cm (d) 2 cm Ans:b 127. The ratio of the specific heat of air at constant pressure to its specific heat at constant volume is? (a) zero (b) greater than one (c) less than one (d) equal to one Ans:b 128. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. When it is immersed in water it will behave as? (a) a convex tens of 10 cm. focal length (b) a concave lens of 10 cm. focal length (c) a convex lens of focal length greater than 10cm. (d) a convex lens of focal length less than 10 cm. Ans:c 129. Two particles having charges q1 and q2 when kept at a certain distance exert a force F on each other. If the distance between the two particles is reduced to half and the charge on each particle is doubled the force between the particles would be ? (a)2F (b)4F (c)8F (d)16F Ans:d 130. A small magnet is placed perpendicular to a constant magnetic field. The forces acting on the magnet will result in? (a) rotation (b) translation (c) no motion at all (d) rotation as well as translation Ans:a 131. A hollow metallic sphere is charged. Inside the sphere? (a) the potential is zero but the electric field is finite (b) the electric field is zero but the potential is finite (c) both the electric field and the potential are finite (d) both the electric field and the potential are zero Ans:b 132. Two electric lamps each of 100 watts 220 V are connected in series to a supply of 220 volts. The power consumed would be: (a)100 Watts (b) 200 Watts (c)25 Watts (d) 50 Watts Ans:d 133. A transformer is: (a) a device for stepping up D.C. (b) a generator of current (c) device for converting direct current into alternating current (d) a device for stepping up or down the voltage of A.C. supply Ans:d 134. Transistor act as a? (a) conductor (b) semi-conductor (c) insulator (d) thermionic valve Ans:d 135. The sky is blue because: (a) there is more blue light in the sunlight (b) of scattering of sunlight by air molecules in the atmosphere (c) of scattering of sunlight by dust particles in the atmosphere (d) other colours are absorbed by heavenly bodies Ans:b 136. A cyclonic storm is indicated by a change in the atmospheric pressure. In atmospheric pressure there is a: (a)sudden rise (b) gradual rise (c)sudden fall (d) gradual fall Ans:c 137. The electric field inside a hollow conducting sphere will ? (a) increases towards the centre (b) decreases towards the centre (c) is finite and constant throughout (d) is zero Ans:d 138. Imperfect gases are those: (a) which contain impurities (b) which do not obey Charle’s and Boyle’s laws (c) whose molecules are not spherical (d) whose molecules cannot be regarded as point masses Ans:b 139. Sonar is a device for: (a) location and ranging of aircraft’s (b) location and ranging submarines (c) producing a musical note of high quality (d) measuring frequency of musical notes Ans:b 140. Cyclotron is a device to produce: (a) atomic energy (b) high energy electrons (c) high energy photons (d) high energy protons Ans:d 141. Which one of the following is not a vector? (a) Velocity (b) Acceleration (c) Force (d) Energy Ans:d 142. Two steel balls of mass 1 kg. and 2kg. and a lead ball of 10kg. are released together from the top of tower 30 metres high. Assuming the path to be in vacuum (a) the lead ball reaches the ground earlier (b) the 1 kg. steel bail reaches the ground earlier (c) all the balls reach the ground simultaneously (d) the 2 kg. steel ball reaches the ground earlier Ans:c 143. After a watch has been wound, it? (a) has great energy stored in it (b) possesses mechanical potential energy stored in it (c) has eletrical energy stored in it (d) has no energy in it Ans:b 144. Two plane mirrors are set at right angles and a flower is placed in any position in between the mirrors. The number of images of the flower which will be seen is? (b) two (d) four (a) one (c) three Ans:c 145. In which of the following cases total internal reflection cannot be obtained? (a) ray going from water to glass (b) a ray going from glass to water (c) a ray going from glass to air (d) a ray going from water to air. Ans:a 146. When white light passes through a glass prism, we get a spectrum on the other side of the prism. In the emergent beam the ray which is deviated least is (a) the violet ray (b) the red ray (c) the green ray (d) the yellow ray Ans:b 147. Magnetic storms are due to (a) the rotation of the earth (b) the revolution of the earth (c) the rainy season (d) the appearance off Sun spots Ans:d 148. For dynamo which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) It converts the electrical energy into light energy (b) It converts the kinetic energy into heat energy (c) It converts the mechanical energy into electrical energy (d) Jt converts the electrical energy into mechanical energy. Ans:c 149. In a transformer the immediate cause of the induced A. C. in the secondary coil is? (a) a varying electric field (b) a varying magnetic field (e) a motion of the secondary coil (d) efficiency of the operator Ans:b 150.A dynamo actually acts as a? (a) converter of energy (b) source of electric charge (c) source of magnetic charge (d) source of energy Ans:a 151. Two long parallel wires P and Q are both perpendicular to the plane of the paper with distance of 5 m between them. If P and Q carry current of 2.5 amp and 5 amp respectively in the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between the wires is ? (a)3μ/2? (b)μ/? (c)?3μ/2? (d)μ/2? Ans:a 152. A proton moving with a velocity 3 x 105 m/s enters a magnetic field of 0.3 Tesla at an angle of 30° with the field. The radius of curvature of its path will be (e/m for proton – 108 C/kg) (a)2cm (b) 0.5 cm (c)0.02 cm (d) 1.25 cm Ans:b 153. A charged particle of charge q and mass m enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field B. Kinetic energy of the particle is E; then frequency of rotation is? (a)qB/m∏ (b) qB/2m∏ (c)qBE/2m∏ (d) qB/2E∏ Ans:b 154. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting? (a) A high resistance in parallel (b) A low resistance in series (c) A high resistance in series (d) A low resistance in parallel Ans:c 155. A wire carries a current. Maintaining the same current it is bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn which produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the coil. The same length is now bent more sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field at the centre of the double loop, caused by the same current is ? (a)4B (b) B /4 (c) B/2 (d) 2B Ans:a 156.A bar magnet is oscillating in earth’s magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period of motion, if its mass is quadruped ? (a) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =T/2 (b) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 2 T (c) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =4T (d) Motion remains simple harmonic and the period stays nearly constant Ans:b 157. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian, is n times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°. The value of n is given by (a)2 (b) 1 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25 Ans:a 158 . For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external electric arc, it should be ? (a) Wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it (b) Placed inside an iron can (c) Surrounded with fine copper sheet (d) Placed inside an aluminium can Ans:b 159. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is? (a) attracted by the poles (b) repelled by the poles (c) repelled by north pole and attracted by the south pole (d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole Ans:b 160. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns N, then magnetic moment of the coil is M= ? (a) NiA (b) Ni/A (c)Ni/?A (d) N2Ai Ans:a 161. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with the identical poles in the same direction. The time period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are placed with opposite poles together and vibrate with time period T2 then ? (a) T2 is infinite (b) T2=T1 (c)T2>T1
(d) T2 is less than T1
Ans:c
162. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(a) perpendicular to the field
(b) from stronger to the weaker pans of the field
(c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(d) in none of the above directions
Ans:b
163. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute
temperature T is proportional to?
(a) T2
(b) 1/T
(c) T
(d) 1/T2
Ans:b

Engineering Assistants in AIR and DD Solved Paper 2010

1. Which one of the following physical quantities, is not defined in the terms of force per unit area:
(a) pressure
(b) strain
(c) stress
(d) Young’s modulus
Ans:b
2. The distance moved by a moving body is equal to:
(a) area between the distance-time graph and distance axis
(b) area between the speed-time graph and time axis
(c) area between the distance-time graph and time axis
(d) area between the speed-time graph and distance axis.
Ans:b
3. A beaker containing water weighs 100 gm. It is placed on the pan of a balance and a piece of metal weighing 70 gm. and having a volume of 10cc. is placed inside the water in the beaker. The weight of the beaker and the metal would be :
(a) 170gm.
(c) 100gm.
(b)160gm.
(d)30gm.
Ans:a
4. For the same kinetic energy, the momentum shall be maximum for:
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) deuteron
(d) alpha particle
Ans:d
5. The common balance works on the principle of equality of:
(a) forces
(b) moments of forces
(c) masses
(d) masses of pans
Ans:b
6. A particle moves in a circle of radius R with a constant speed under a centripetal force F. The work done in completing a full circle is:
(a) 2RF
(b) ΠR2F
(c) 2ΠRF
(d)Zero
Ans:d
7. When two quantities are plotted on the graph paper against each other and the result so obtained is a st. line, then
(a) Both the quantities are equal
(b) The quantities are inversely proportional to each other
(c) Sum of both is zero
(d) The quantities are proportional to each other
Ans:d
8. What is the order of magnitude of 260°?
(a)103
(b) 104
(c)102
(d) 10
Ans:c
9. The maximum value of g is:
(a) At the poles
(b) At the top of the Mount Everest
(c) At the equator
(d) Below the sea level
Ans:a
10. A fixed volume of gas at 27°C exerts a pressure of 750 mm. If the gas is heated to a pressure of 1500mm., temperature must be:
(a) 600°C
(b) 327°C
(c) 54°C
(d) 13.5°C
Ans:b
11. A body of mass 2 kg acted upon by a constant force, travels a distance of 3 metres in the first second and a further distance of meter in the next second. The force acting on the body is?
(a) 12 Newtons
(b) 8 Newtons
(c) 4 Newtons
(d) 1 Newton
Ans:c
12. Two forces each equal to P acting at a point have no resultant. The angle between the two forces must be equal to:
(a)180°
(b) 90°
(c)0°
(d) 120°
Ans:a
13. A jet engine works on the principle of:
(a) conservation of energy
(b) conservation of momentum
(c) conservation of mass
(d) conservation of temperature
Ans:b
14. A sharp knife cuts much better than a blunt one because?
(a) Area of sharp knife is much less than the area of the blunt one
(b) sharp knife is brighter
(c) sharp knife is colder
(d) sharp knife is costly
Ans:a
15. A man carries a heavy box on his head on a horizontal plane from one place to another.
In this he does?
(a) maximum work
(b) no work
(c) negative work
(d) minimum work
Ans:b
16. The bob of a second’s pendulum is replaced by another bob of double mass. The new time period will be:
(a) 4 sec.
(c) 2 sec.
(b) 1 sec
(d) 3 sec.
Ans:c
17.A device for measuring temperatures at a distance is
(a) gas thermometer
(b) mercury thermometer
(c) radiation
(d) maximum-minimum thermometer
Ans:c
18. A piece of ice is floating in a concentrated solution of common salt (in water) in a pot. When ice melts completely, the level of solution will:
(a) go up
(b) remain the same
(c) go down
(d) first go up then go down
Ans:a
19. A radioactive source has a half-life of 30 days. During a period of 90 days the fraction of atoms that have decayed would be
(a)100%
(b) 87.5%
(c)64%
(d) 50%
Ans:b
20. A black body emits:
(a) radiations of all wavelengths
(b) no radiations
(c) radiations of only one wavelength
(d) radiations of selected wavelengths
Ans:a
21. A near sighted person cannot see distinctly beyond 50 cm. from his eye. The power in diopter of spectacle lenses which will enable him to see distant objects clearly is
(a) +50
(b) —50
(c) +2
(d) —2
Ans:c
22. Size of a nucleus is of the order of?
(a)10-18m
(b) 10-14m
(c)10-10m
(d) 10-6m
Ans:b
23. The freezing point on a thermometer is marked as 20° and the boiling point as 150°C. A temperature of 60°C on this thermometer will be read as:
(a)40°
(b) 65°
(c)98°
(d) 110°
Ans:c
24. In isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:
(a) heat content remains constant
(b) temperature remains constant
(c) both heat content and temperature remain constant
(d) pressure and temperature of the gas remain constant
Ans:b
25. A man standing between two cliffs hears the first echo of a sound after 2 sec. and the second echo 3 sec. after the initial sound. If the speed of sound be 330 m/sec. the distance between the two cliffs should be
(a)1650 m.
(b)990 m.
(c)825 m
(d) 660 m.
Ans:c
26. In a resonance tube experiment the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm. of air column and the second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is equal to?
(a)0.5 cm
(b)1.0 cm
(c)1.5 cm
(d) 2 cm
Ans:b
27. The ratio of the specific heat of air at constant pressure to its specific heat at constant volume is?
(a) zero
(b) greater than one
(c) less than one
(d) equal to one
Ans:b
28. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. When it is immersed in water it will behave
as?
(a) a convex tens of 10 cm. focal length
(b) a concave lens of 10 cm. focal length
(c) a convex lens of focal length greater than 10cm.
(d) a convex lens of focal length less than 10 cm.
Ans:c
29. Two particles having charges q1 and q2 when kept at a certain distance exert a force F on each other. If the distance between the two particles is reduced to half and the charge on each particle is doubled the force between the particles would be ?
(a)2F
(b)4F
(c)8F
(d)16F
Ans:d
30. A small magnet is placed perpendicular to a constant magnetic field. The forces acting on the magnet will result in?
(a) rotation
(b) translation
(c) no motion at all
(d) rotation as well as translation
Ans:a
31. A hollow metallic sphere is charged. Inside the sphere?
(a) the potential is zero but the electric field is finite
(b) the electric field is zero but the potential is finite
(c) both the electric field and the potential are finite
(d) both the electric field and the potential are zero
Ans:b
32. Two electric lamps each of 100 watts 220 V are connected in series to a supply of 220 volts. The power consumed would be:
(a)100 Watts
(b) 200 Watts
(c)25 Watts
(d) 50 Watts
Ans:d
33. A transformer is:
(a) a device for stepping up D.C.
(b) a generator of current
(c) device for converting direct current into alternating current
(d) a device for stepping up or down the voltage of A.C. supply
Ans:d
34. Transistor act as a?
(a) conductor
(b) semi-conductor
(c) insulator
(d) thermionic valve
Ans:d
35. The sky is blue because:
(a) there is more blue light in the sunlight
(b) of scattering of sunlight by air molecules in the atmosphere
(c) of scattering of sunlight by dust particles in the atmosphere
(d) other colours are absorbed by heavenly bodies
Ans:b
36. A cyclonic storm is indicated by a change in the atmospheric pressure. In atmospheric
pressure there is a:
(a)sudden rise
(b) gradual rise
(c)sudden fall
(d) gradual fall
Ans:c
37. The electric field inside a hollow conducting sphere will ?
(a) increases towards the centre
(b) decreases towards the centre
(c) is finite and constant throughout
(d) is zero
Ans:d
38. Imperfect gases are those:
(a) which contain impurities
(b) which do not obey Charle’s and Boyle’s laws
(c) whose molecules are not spherical
(d) whose molecules cannot be regarded as point masses
Ans:b
39. Sonar is a device for:
(a) location and ranging of aircraft’s
(b) location and ranging submarines
(c) producing a musical note of high quality
(d) measuring frequency of musical notes
Ans:b
40. Cyclotron is a device to produce:
(a) atomic energy
(b) high energy electrons
(c) high energy photons
(d) high energy protons
Ans:d
41. Which one of the following is not a vector?
(a) Velocity
(b) Acceleration
(c) Force
(d) Energy
Ans:d
42. Two steel balls of mass 1 kg. and 2kg. and a lead ball of 10kg. are released together from the top of tower 30 metres high. Assuming the path to be in vacuum
(a) the lead ball reaches the ground earlier
(b) the 1 kg. steel bail reaches the ground earlier
(c) all the balls reach the ground simultaneously
(d) the 2 kg. steel ball reaches the ground earlier
Ans:c
43. After a watch has been wound, it?
(a) has great energy stored in it
(b) possesses mechanical potential energy stored in it
(c) has eletrical energy stored in it
(d) has no energy in it
Ans:b
44. Two plane mirrors are set at right angles and a flower is placed in any position in between the mirrors. The number of images of the flower which will be seen is?
(b) two
(d) four
(a) one
(c) three
Ans:c
45. In which of the following cases total internal reflection cannot be obtained?
(a) ray going from water to glass
(b) a ray going from glass to water
(c) a ray going from glass to air
(d) a ray going from water to air.
Ans:a
46. When white light passes through a glass prism, we get a spectrum on the other side of the prism. In the emergent beam the ray which is deviated least is
(a) the violet ray
(b) the red ray
(c) the green ray
(d) the yellow ray
Ans:b
47. Magnetic storms are due to
(a) the rotation of the earth
(b) the revolution of the earth
(c) the rainy season
(d) the appearance off Sun spots
Ans:d
48. For dynamo which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) It converts the electrical energy into light energy
(b) It converts the kinetic energy into heat energy
(c) It converts the mechanical energy into electrical energy
(d) Jt converts the electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Ans:c
49. In a transformer the immediate cause of the induced A. C. in the secondary coil is?
(a) a varying electric field
(b) a varying magnetic field
(e) a motion of the secondary coil
(d) efficiency of the operator
Ans:b
50.A dynamo actually acts as a?
(a) converter of energy
(b) source of electric charge
(c) source of magnetic charge
(d) source of energy
Ans:a

IAS Prelims General Studies Solved Question Paper 2011

Here you find IAS Prelims General Studies Solved Question Paper I. UPSC conducted Civil Services Preliminary Examination 2011 on 12 June 2011. You can read these questions and prepare yourself for coming IAS Prelims and other important exams of India.

1. In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material?

1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non- renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is ceo-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

Ans: b

2. Consider the following:-

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:d

3. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:

1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular.
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth's equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 Only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: a

4. India has experienced persistent,and high food inflation in the recent past,what could be the reasons?

1.Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
2. As a consequnce of increasing incomes,the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints,

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

5. At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome.How does this knowledge benefit us?

1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds,

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 Only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

6. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to

(a) Exports
(b) Imports
(c) Production
(d) Consumption

Ans: a

7. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy.Why ?

1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

8. Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the "fiscal stimulus"?

(a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth.
(b) It is an intense affirmati ve action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country
(c) It is Government's intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation
(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion

Ans: b

9. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?

(a) Presence of prominent tropo-spheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of .prominent polar front and stratospheric': Clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to golbal warming

Ans: b

10. Consider the following actions which the Governnient can take:

1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.

Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3

Ans: d

11. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amend-ment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 ans 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

12. Two important rivers - one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another,with its source in Odisha - merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area.

Which one of the following could be this?

(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
(d) Simlipal

Ans: a

13. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the "base effect", What is "base effect" ?

(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops
(b) It is the impact of the - surge in demand due to rapid economic growth
(c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Ans: c

14. India is regarded as a country With "Demographic Dividend" This is due to

(a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years
(b) Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years
(c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years
(d) Its high total population

Ans: b

15. Regarding "carbon credits", which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
(d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme

Ans: d

16. Which one of the following is not a feature of "Value Added Tax" ?

(a) It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation
(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain
(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer
(d) It is basically a subject of the Cental Government and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation

Ans: d

17. A "closed economy" is an economy in which

(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place

Ans: d

18. When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base,it gradually dries up and dies because

(a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts
(b) Roots are starved of energy
(c) Tree is infected by soil microbes
(d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration

Ans: a

19. The "New START" treaty was In the news. What is this treaty?

(a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and' the Russian Federation
(b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit
(c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for the energy security cooperation
(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries Species richness

Ans: a

20. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:

1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism.
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm arid humid conditions

Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?

(a) 1,2 and 6
(b) 2,4 and 6
(c) 1,3 and 5
(d) 3,4 and 6

Ans: c

21. Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of

1. Its escape into the outer strato-sphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the oceans.
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Ans: c

22. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the

1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. nutrients to the surface.
3. bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans: d

23. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because

(a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
(b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
(c) the rain forest species are slow- growing
(d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest

Ans: a

24. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this Phenomenon?

(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
(c) Exotic and invasive species have riot been introduced in this region
(d) It has less human interference

Ans: b

25. With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:

1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927

Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conser-vation in the country?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above Acts

Ans: c

26. Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?

(a) Empirical liberalism
(b) Existentialism
(c) Darwin's theory of evolution
(d) Dialectical materialism

Ans: d

27. A layer in the Earth s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?

1. The presence of ozone 'causes the,reflection of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength

Which of the statements given above is/are correct.

a) 1 Only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

28. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two ?

(a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors.
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI

Ans: b

29. A genetically engineered form of brinjal,Known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is

(a) To make it pest-resistant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
(c) To make it drought-resistant
(d) To make its shelf-life longer

Ans: a

30. With reference to "Aam Admi Bima Yojana", consider the following statements:

1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an. earning member of the family in a rural landless house- hold.
2. The Member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

31. In the context of global oil prices. "Brent crude oil" is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?

1. it is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from north sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.

which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

32. The Function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to

(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) Cool down the reactor
(d) Stop the nuclear reaction

Ans: a

33. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to ?

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister's 15-Point Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 onJy
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

34. India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to' them under the law?

1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

35. With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of "Mega Food Parks" ?

1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

36. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister

Ans: b

37. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund

Ans: c

38. Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed.The service/ services rendered under micro- finance is/ are :

1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: d

39. Southeast Asia has captivated the attention. of global community' over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective ?

(a) It was the hot theatre during the Second World War
(b) Its location between the Asian powers of China and India
(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period
(d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character

Ans: d

40. A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain transfats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?

1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/ oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

41. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the "Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act" ?

(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household

Ans: d

42. With reference to "Look East Policy" of India, consider the following statements:

1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold War.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

43. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

(a) the Budget is modified and presented again
(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

Ans: d

44. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

Ans: a

45. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
(c) It ensuresjransparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.

Ans: d

46. Consider the following:

1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.

Which of the above is/ are Human Right/Human Rights under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights"?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

47. There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?

1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.

Select the Correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

48. Consider the foliowing:
1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action

Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth ?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2,3 and 4

Ans: c

49. Recently, the OSA decided to support India's membership In multi-lateral export control regimes called the "Australia Group" and the "Wassenaar
Arrangement". What is the difference between them?

1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.

2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar'Arrangement are predominantly,from the European Union and American continents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

50. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?

(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
(c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.

Ans: c

51. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?

(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle

Ans: b

52. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How IS La Nina different from EI Nino?

1. La Nina is characterised by un-usually cold ocean' temperature in equatorial indian Ocean whereas EI Nino-is -Characterised "by 'unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2

Ans: d

53. The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?

(a) Making Zarnindar 's position stronger vis-a-vis the ryot
(b) Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars
(c) Making judicial system more efficient
(d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above

Ans: b

54. Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942 ?

(a) It was a non-violent movement
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
(c) It was a spontanous movement
(d) It did not attract the labour class in general

Ans: b

55. Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century ?

(a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products
(b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas
(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas
(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the' tribal communities

Ans: c

56. India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation/explanations?

(a) As compared to other countries, India had a better strip-building technology in ancient and medieval times
(b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, brahmin priests and buddhist monks in this context
(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitaied.seayo Yagages
(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations inthiscontext

Ans: d

57. What' IS the difference between Bluetooth. and Wi-Fi devices?

(a) Bluetooth uses 2-4GHz .radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2-4 GHz or 5GHz frequency band
(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks ,(WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only
(c) When information is transmitted between two devices using Blue- tooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other
(d) The statemen (a) and (b) given above are correctin this context

Ans: a

58. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

59. With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, "Home -Charges" formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted "Home Charges" ?

1.Funds used to support the India Office in London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) I and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

60. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda ?

1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2

Ans: a

61. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways:

1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: d

62. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use ?

(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
(b) When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it 'beccmes resistant to oxida- tion
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table "sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calorieson oxidation

Ans: c

63. What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893 ?

(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
(b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
(c) To facilitate a discussion on India's Independence in the British Parliament
(d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament

Ans: a

64. What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp ?

1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour' and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semi-conductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.

Which of the statements given above Is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

65. Recently, "oilzapper" was in the news. What is it ?

(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
(b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
(d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells

Ans: a

66. A married couple adopted a male child. A few years ,later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and 0 negative. The blood group of. the three sons is A positive, B positive, and 0 positive. The blood group of the adopted son is

(a) O positive
(b) A positive
(c) B positive
(d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data

Ans: a

67. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled,"Unto this Last" and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?

(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man
(b) The good of individual is contained in the good of all .
(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context

Ans:

68. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for
(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
(b) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
(c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Ans: a

69. A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?

1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2-4 mm while that of DVD is1-2 mm.

Which of the statements given above is! are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: c

70. With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report ?

1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

71. Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of• orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Ans: b

72. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?

(a) Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary

Ans: b

73. Consider the following statements: In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee?

1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes III the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:

74. What is the difference between "vote- on-account" and "interim budget" ?

1. The provision of a "vote-on- account" is used by a regular Government, while an "interim budget" is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A "vote-an-account" only deals with the expenditure in Government's budget, while an "interim budget" includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2

Ans:

75. Regarding 'the International Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements, is correct?

(a) It can grant loans to any country
(b) It can grant loans to only developed countries
(c) It grants loans to only member countries
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a country

Ans: c

76. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?

(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots

Ans:

77. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is' created 'and maintained by

(a) Universal Law
(b) Universal Truth
(c) Universal Faith
(d) Universal Soul

Ans: a

78. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evapo- rates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land?

(a) It greatly increases the crop production
(b) It makes some soils impermeable
(c) It raises the water table
(d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water

Ans: b

79. The "Red Data Books" published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources . in various countries.

Select the correct. answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans: b

80. Why is the offering of "teaser loans" by commercial banks a cause Of economic concern ?

1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

81. An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth

(a) does not exist at such distance
(b) is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
(c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
(d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion

Ans:

82. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements :

1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:

83. In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities ?

(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Cooperative Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Microfinance Institutions

Ans: a

84. Which of the following can aid in furthering the Govemment's objective of inclusive growth?

1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: d

85. Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?

1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:

86. What is the difference between asteroids and comets?

1. Asteroids are small rocky plane- toids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the _ orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: b

87. Economic growth is with usually coupled

(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Stagflation
(d) Hyperinflation

Ans: b

88. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to

(a) More liquidity in the market
(b) Less liquidity in the market
(c) No change in the liquidity in the market
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial - banks

Ans: a

89. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?

1. Southern hemisphere landmass as compared hemisphere. has less to northern
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere, as compared to northern hemisphere

Which of the statements given above isl are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:

90. Between India and East Asia, the navigation time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?

1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kraisthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.

Which of the statements given above isl are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2

Ans: b

91. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?

(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy
(c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in. the' body during metabolism
(d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process

Ans: c

92. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:

1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above isl are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

93. The lower Gangetic plain is characterised by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?

(a) Paddy and cotton
(b) Wheat and Jute
(c) Paddy and Jute
(d) Wheat and cotton

Ans: c

94. What could be the main reasonlreasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt ?

1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
2. It is. under the influence of warm ocean currents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

95. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?

1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.

which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: a

96. Consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

Which of the statements given above is! are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

Ans: c

97. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow it through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a "U" turn in its course to flow into India. This "U" turn is due to

(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
(d) Both (a) and (b) above

Ans: d

98. A state in India has the following characteristics:

1. Its northern part is arid and semiarid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.

Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics ?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans: b

99. What is"Virtual Private Network" ?

(a) It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization
(b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization's network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted
(c) It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is a correct description of Virtual Private Network

Ans: b

100. The "dharma" and "rita" depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this context, consider the following statements :

1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one's duties to oneself and to others.
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: c

Indian Air Force EKT Solved Paper 2010

Indian Air Force Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT) Solved Papers 2010

TECHNICAL BRANCH
Part A: General Engineering

1. The probability of hitting a target from one gun 9/10, from another gun is 7/10. If both gun are fired at the same time, the probability of hitting the target is
(A) 2/20 (B) 63/100
(C) 16/20 (D) 63/20

2. If the three vectors a, b and c are coplanar , then the missed product a x b. c is
(A) Zero (B) Non-Zero
(C) Unity (D) Non of these

6. When a body hits an obstacle, the force with which it hits the obstacle depends upon its
(A) average velocity
(B) velocity at the instant of collision
(C) initial velocity
(D) all of these

7. The wavelength of visible light is of the order of
(A) 1μm (B) 100 μm
(C) 1mm (D) 1 Å

8. Whenever a source of sound moves towards an observer
(A) the frequency heard by the observer is less than that of the source
(B) the frequency heard by the observer is greater than that of the source
(C) the frequency heard by the observer is unchanged
(D) the wavelength of sound heard is greater than that of the sound emitted

9. Moving electric charges will interact with
(A) electric field only
(B) magnetic field only
(C) both of these
(D) none of these

10. Gamma radiation is most similar to
(A) sound waves (B) X-ray
(C) Alpha particles (D) neutrons

11. The fundamental particle responsible for keeping the nucleus together is
(A) meson (B) anti proton
(C) positron (D) muon

12. Air contains 21% oxygen by volume and the rest nitrogen. If the barometer pressure is 740 mm of Hg the partial pressure of oxygen is close to
(A) 155 mm of Hg
(B) 310 mm of Hg
(C) 465 mm of Hg
(D) 162 mm of Hg

13. In the electrolytic cell
(A) electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
(B) chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(C) mechanical energy is converted into potential energy
(D) potential energy is converted into kinetic energy

14. The force required to maintain a body at constant speed in free space is equal to
(A) the mass of the body
(B) zero
(C) the weight of the body
(D) the force required to stop it

15. If the length of a spring is halved, the spring constant becomes
(A) half (B) 1/4th
(C) double (D) four times

16. The coefficient of static friction depends on
(A) the material of the bodies in contact
(B) the quality of surface finish of the bodies
(C) the presence of foreign matter between the surface
(D) all of these

17. The units of angular impulse in SI system are
(A) Nms (B) Ns
(C) Nm/s (D) Ns/m

19. Stainless steel contains iron and
(A) Chromium and nickel
(B) Chromium and carbon
(C) Nickel and carbon
(D) Chromium and manganese

20. The property of material by which it offers resistance to scratching or indentation is called
(A) Brittleness
(B) Hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) Resilience

21. The failure of a material due to repeated stressing is known as
(A) Creep
(B) Fracture
(C) Fatigue
(D) Brittle Fracture

22. The electric device which blocks DC but allows AC is called
(A) Capacitor
(B) Inductor
(C) Amplifier
(D) Transducer

23. When a charge is moved from one point to another in an electric field, the work done is
(A) independent of the path
(B) zero along the direction of the field
(C) measured in Joules per metre
(D) measure in Volt per metre

24. A capacitor with lowest leakage is
(A) Paper (B) Ceramic
(C) Polyester (D) Mica

25. A zener diode operates
(A) In an extremely high forward bias
(B) In an extremely low reverse bias
(C) In an extremely low forward bias
(D) In a reverse bias higher than laid down voltage

26. The specific gravity of a lead acid cell is often used as a measure of its
(A) Rate of discharge
(B) Operating temperature
(C) State of charge
(D) Life expectancy

27. An uniformly distributed load is one which
(A) Acts at a point on a beam
(B) Spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(C) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(D) loads the beam from one end only

28. A steam engine device which keeps the speed of the engine, all loads, constant is known as
(A) Flywheel
(B) Eccentric
(C) Connecting rod
(D) Governor

29. The refrigerant hiving the lowest freezing point is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Freon – 11
(D) Freon – 22

30. Heat and work are
(A) Path functions
(B) Properties of a substance
(C) Point functions
(D) Absolute units
PART B-1 AE (M): MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

1. An impulse turbine
(A) Makes use of a draft tube
(B) Always operates submerged
(C) Converts the pressure head into velocity head through the vanes
(D) Is most suited for low head installations

2. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly proportional to
(A) Diameter of its impeller
(B) Square of diameter of its impeller
(C) Cube of diameter of its impeller
(D) Fourth power of diameter of its impeller

3. The locus of the common point on the two meshing spur gears is known as
(A) Addendum circle
(B) Duodenum circle
(C) Pitch circle
(D) Base circle

4. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration then the body is said to have
(A) Free vibration
(B) Forced vibration
(C) Damped vibration
(D) Natural vibration

5. For machining at high speed the tool material should have
(A) Wear resistance
(B) Red hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) All of these

6. MIG welding is
(A) A gas welding process
(B) An electric resistance welding process
(C) A electric resistance welding process
(D) A forge welding process involving high temperatures and low pressures

7. The ability of sand to permit the metal to shrink when it solidifies is known is
(A) Plasticity (B) Permeability
(C) Collapsibility (D) Cohesiveness

8. Rivets are generally specified by
(A) Overall length
(B) Shank diameter
(C) Thickness of plates to be jointed
(D) Diameter of head

9. Which of the following is steady flow compressor
(A) Reciprocating compressor
(B) Centrifugal compressor
(C) Voot blower
(D) Vane blower

10. A closed cycle gas turbine works on
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle
(C) Brayton cycle (D) Joule cycle

11. Thermal conductivity of solid metals
(A) Decreases with rise in temperature
(B) Does not vary with temperature
(C) Increases with rise in temperature
(D) Remains constant with rise in temperature

12. During adiabatic saturation process, air property which remains constant, is known as
(A) Wet bulb temperature
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(C) Relative humidity
(D) Specific humidity

13. Bell-Coleman cycle as applied to refrigeration operates
(A) On open air system
(B) On vapour compression system
(C) On vapour absorption system
(D) On none of these

14. The gears in which axes of the shaft connected by them, intersect, are known as
(A) Spur gears (B) Bevel gears
(C) Spiral gears (D) Gear train

15. Shot peening
(A) Is done at re-crystallization temperature
(B) Changes the crystalline structure at materials
(C) Improves the fatigue life of small parts
(D) Refines the grain structure

16. In a bomb calorimeter the heat released by the fuel is absorbed by
(A) Atmospheric air
(B) Water
(C) Metal container
(D) Bomb, water and metal container

17. Nitriding is done
(A) On low carbon steels only
(B) To impart blue colour to steels
(C) To improve machinability
(D) To increase surface hardness

18. The extent of cold work that a metal can withstand depends on
(A) Purity of metal
(B) Carbon percentage
(C) Ductility
(D) Room temperature

19. Which engine has the highest air fuel ratio
(A) Petrol engine (B) Gas engine
(C) Diesel engine (D) Gas turbine

20. Annealing of steels is done to
(A) Remove internal stresses
(B) Produce soft core under hard surface
(C) Produce hard core under soft surface
(D) Introduce capacity to withstand shocks
PART B-2 AE (M): AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING

1. What mass of lead (sp gr = 11) will weigh as much as 8 gram of iron (Sp gr = icon cool Indian Air Force EKT Question Papers 2010 when both are immersed in water
(A) 7.7 gram (B) 8.8 gram
(C) 10.0 gram (D) 1.1 gram

2. Which of the two forces are important in floating bodies
(A) inertial, pressure
(B) buoyancy, gravity
(C) gravity, inertial
(D) pressure, viscous

3. A dimensionless number which is a ratio of kinematics viscosity to thermal diffusivity is known as
(A) Prandtl Number
(B) Nusselt Number
(C) Reynold’s Number
(D) Stanton Number

4. Ozone is an
(A) isomer of oxygen
(B) allotrope of oxygen
(C) isobar of oxygen
(D) isotope of oxygen

5. Within a carburetor the velocity of air is maximum at
(A) inlet
(B) outlet
(C) venture
(D) does not change within a carburetor

6. A 50 Kg mass is accelerated from rest to 50 m/s. The force on it is
(A) 500 N
(B) 2,500 N
(C) 512 N
(D) Can not be determined from the given data

7. In vacuum the velocity of light depends on
(A) none of the following
(B) frequency
(C) temperature
(D) pressure

8. The source of solar energy is
(A) nuclear fission / fusion
(B) electromagnetic radiation
(C) chemical energy
(D) burning of hydrogen

9. The pressure of a real gas is less than the pressure of an ideal gas because of
(A) increase in the number of intermolecular collisions
(B) higher energy possessed by the molecules than the theoretical estimates
(C) inter-molecular forces
(D) finite size of molecules

10. Which of the following is dimensionless
(A) young’s modulus of elasticity
(B) stress (C) strain
(D) shear stress

11. Which of the following relations is incorrect One atmospheric pressure is nearly equal to
(A) 1013 bar
(B) 1013250 dynes/cm2
(C) 1.033kgf/cm2
(D) 735 mm of Hg

12. Which of the following is a scalar quantity
(A) velocity of a gear
(B) acceleration of a car
(C) force in friction
(D) area of a triangle

13. The Mach number at inlet of a gas turbine diffuser is 0.3. The shape of the diffuser would be
(A) converging (B) diverging
(C) diverging – converging
(D) converging – diverging

14. For adiabatic expansion with friction through a nozzle, the following remains constant
(A) entropy (B) static enthalpy
(C) stagnation enthalpy
(D) stagnation pressure

15. Separation of flow is caused by
(A) reduction of pressure in the direction flow
(B) decrease in the boundary layer thickness
(C) increase of pressure in the direction of flow
(D) adverse pressure gradient

16. A pilot tube senses
(A) stagnation pressure
(B) average pressure
(C) maximum pressure
(D) velocity head pressure

17. Which of the following materials has the higher value of Poisson’ ratio
(A) rubber (B) copper
(C) steel (D) concrete

18. During forced vertex flow
(A) velocity increases with radius
(B) velocity decreases with radius
(C) fluid rotates as a composite solid
(D) inertial forces are significant

19. Hooke’s law is valid within the limits of proportionality. The limit of proportionality depends on
(A) type of loading
(B) area of cross section
(C) type of material
(D) hardness of material

20. Euler’s equation of fluid motion can be integrated when it is assumed that
(A) the fluid is incompressible
(B) Bernoulli’s equation is satisfied
(C) flow is rotational
(D) velocity potential exits and the density is constant
PART B-3 AE (L): ELECTRICAL, ELECTRONICS AND INSTRUMENTATION

1. In order for a 30 volt, 90 watt lamp to work properly in a 120 volt supply the required series resister in ohm is
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40

2. According to Theremin’s theorem, any linear active network can be replaced by a single voltage source
(A) in series with a single impedance
(B) in parallel with a single impedance
(C) in series with two impedances
(D) in parallel with two impedances

3. The internal resistance of ammeter is
(A) very small (B) very high
(C) infinite (D) zero

4. Hay bridge is used mainly for the measurement of
(A) resistance (B) inductance
(C) conductance (D) capacitance

5. Which of the following is true about series resonance
(A) The reactance becomes zero and impedance becomes equal to resistance
(B) The current in the circuit becomes maximum
(C) The voltage drop across inductance and capacitance cancels each other
(D) All of the above statements are correct

6. A 3-Ф, 4 wire, 400/230 v feeder supplies 3-phase motor and an unbalanced lighting load. In this system
(A) all four wires will carry equal current
(B) neutral wire will carry no current
(C) neutral wire will carry both motor current and lighting load current
(D) neutral wire will carry current only when lighting load is switched on

7. Equalizing connections are required when paralleling two
(A) alternators
(B) compound generators
(C) series generators
(D) both (B) and (C)

8. An ideal transformer is one which
(A) has a common core for its primary and secondary windings
(B) has no losses and magnetic leakage
(C) has core of stainless steel and windings of pure copper metal
(D) has interleaved primary and secondary windings

9. The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is most similar to that of a
(A) synchronous motor
(B) repulsion-start induction motor
(C) transformer with a shorted secondary
(D) capacitor-start, induction-run motor

10. In the forward region of its characteristic, a diode appears as
(A) an OFF switch
(B) a high resistance
(C) a capacitor
(D) an ON switch

11. The common-emitter forward amplification factor βdc is given by
(A) IC/IE (B) IC/Ib
(C) IE/IC (D) IB/IF

12. A common emitter amplifier is characterized by
(A) low voltage gain
(B) moderate power gain
(C) signal phase reversal
(D) very high output impedance

13. After VDS reaches pinch-off value VP in a JFET, drain current IO becomes
(A) zero (B) low
(C) saturated (D) reversed

14. An electronic oscillator
(A) needs an external input
(B) provides its own input
(C) is nothing but an amplifier
(D) is just a dc/ac converter

15. In an SCR, the function of the gate is to
(A) switch it off
(B) control its firing
(C) make it unidirectional
(D) reduce forward breakdown voltage

16. NAND and NOR gates are called ‘universal’ gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture

17. Registers and counters are similar in the sense that they both
(A) count pulses
(B) store binary information
(C) are made from an array of flip-flops and gates integrated on a single chip
(D) are in fact shift register

18. A flip-flop
(A) is a sequential logic device
(B) is a combinational logic device
(C) remembers what was previously stored in it
(D) both (A) and (C)

19. An operational amplifier
(A) can be used to sum two or more signals
(B) can be used to subtract two or more signals
(C) uses to principle of feed back
(D) all of the above

20. TTL logic is preferred to DRL logic because
(A) greater fan-out is possible
(B) greater logic levels are possible
(C) greater fan-in is possible
(D) less power consumption is possible
PART B-4 AE (L): ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS

1. In a communication system, noise is most likely to get into the system
(A) at the transmitter
(B) in the channel
(C) in the information source
(D) at the destination

2. When modulation frequency is doubled, the modulation index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant, the modulation system is
(A) amplitude modulation
(B) phase modulation
(C) frequency modulation
(D) angle modulation

3. Impedance inversion may be obtained with
(A) a short – circuited stub
(B) an open – circuited stub
(C) a quarter – wave line
(D) a half – wave line

4. HIGH frequency waves are
(A) observed by the F2 layer
(B) reflected by D layer
(C) capable of use for long-distance communication on the moon
(D) affected by the solar cycle

5. Which one of the following terms does not apply to the Yagi-uda array
(A) Good band width
(B) Parasitic elements
(C) Folded diploe
(D) High gain

6. A duplexer is used
(A) to couple two different antennae to a transmitter without mutual interference
(B) to allow one antenna to be used for reception or transmission without mutual interference
(C) to prevent interference between two antennae when they are connected to receiver
(D) to increase the speed of the pulses in pulsed radar

7. Indicate which of the following system is digital
(A) Pulse – Position modulation
(B) Pulse – Code modulation
(C) Pulse – Width modulation
(D) Pulse – Frequency modulation

8. A forward error correcting code corrects errors only
(A) requiring partial retransmission of the signal
(B) requiring retransmission of entire signal
(C) using parity to correct to errors in all cases
(D) requiring no part of the signal to be transmitted

9. A typical signal strength received from a geosynchronous communication satellite is of the order of
(A) a few milli watts
(B) kilo watts
(C) watts
(D) few pico watts

10. Telephone traffic is measured
(A) with echo cancellers
(B) by the relative congestion
(C) in terms of the grade of service
(D) in erlangs

11. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in which
(A) logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and positive voltage respectively
(B) logic 0 and 1 are represented by negative and positive voltages respectively
(C) logic 0 voltage level in higher than logic 1 voltage level
(D) logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic 1 voltage level

12. A half-adder can be made from
(A) two NAND gates
(B) a NOT gate and an OR gate
(C) an AND gate and an OR gate
(D) an AND gate and an X-OR gate

13. Which of the following devices has its characteristics very close to that of an ideal current source.
(A) Field effect transistor
(B) Transistor in common bas mode
(C) Zener diode
(D) MOSFET

14. The main use of a common base transistor amplifier is
(A) as voltage amplifier
(B) current amplifier
(C) for matching a high source impedance to a low load impedance
(D) for rectification of a.c. signal

15. A class-B amplifier is biased
(A) Just at cut-off
(B) nearly twice cut-off
(C) at mid point of load line
(D) so that IB equals jut IC

16. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is increased by a factor of 16, the maximum range will be increased by a factor of
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

17. A high PRF will (indicate the false statement)
(A) make the returned echoes easier to distinguish from noise
(B) make target tracking easier with conical scanning
(C) increase the maximum range
(D) have no effect of the range resolution

18. A solution to the “blind speed” problem in a radar system is to
(A) change the Doppler frequency
(B) vary the PRF
(C) use mono pulse
(D) use MTI

19. The number of active picture elements in a television image depends on
(A) fly back time
(B) CRT screen size
(C) received band width
(D) FB ratio of receiver antenna

20. In a colour TV, the three primary colours are
(A) red, orange and blue
(B) red, blue and green
(C) red, green and yellow
(D) red, orange and green
PART B-5 AE (L): COMPUTER ENGINEERING

1. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which
(A) makes logic decision
(B) allows electron flow only in one direction
(C) works on binary algebra
(D) alternates between 0 and 1 values

2. NAND and NOR gates are called ‘universal’ gates primarily because they
(A) are available everywhere
(B) are widely used in IC packages
(C) can be combined to produce AND, OR and NOT gates
(D) are the easiest to manufacture

3. The ascending order of a data hierarchy is:
(A) bit-byte-record-field-file-data base
(B) byte-bit-field-record-file
(C) byte-bit-record-field-file-data base
(D) bit-byte-field-record -file-data base

4. A dumb terminal can do nothing more than communicate data to and from a CPU of a computer. How does a ‘smart’ terminal differ from dumb terminal
(A) it has a primary memory
(B) it has a cache memory
(C) it has a micro processor
(D) it has an input device

5. The main distinguishing features of fifth generation digital computer will be
(A) liberal use of micro processors
(B) artificial intelligence
(C) extremely low cost
(D) versatility

6. Which of the following terms is not used to refer to the recording density of a disk
(A) mega-density (B) single-density
(C) double-density (D) quad-density

7. The two kinds of main memory are
(A) primary and secondary
(B) random and sequential
(C) ROM and RAM
(D) central and peripheral

8. Which one of the following is not an octal number
(A) 29 (B) 75 (C) 16 (D) 102

9. Main problem with LCDs is that they are very difficult to read
(A) directly
(B) in bright light
(C) in dull light
(D) both (B) and (C)

10. Both computer instructions and memory addresses are represented by
(A) character codes
(B) binary codes
(C) binary word
(D) parity bit

11. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/an
(A) interpreter (B) simulator
(C) compiler (D) commander

12. All the keys on the IBM PC key board repeat as long as we hold them down. Such type of keys are known as
(A) typematic keys
(B) functional keys
(C) automatic keys
(D) alphabetic keys

13. What does the acronym ISDN stands for
(A) Indian Standard Digital Network
(B) Integrated Services Digital Network
(C) Intelligent Service Digital Network
(D) Integrated Services Data Network

14. Two basic types of operating system are
(A) sequential and direct
(B) batch and time sharing
(C) direct and interactive
(D) batch and interactive

15. Which of the following entity does not belong to word processing
(A) characters (B) words
(C) cells (D) paragraphs

16. A schema describes
(A) data elements
(B) records and filer
(C) record relationship
(D) all of the above

17. Which of the following is not a tool used to manage and control schedule performance
(A) CAD (B) PERT
(C) CPM (D) Gantt Chart

18. An expert system differs from a data base program in that only an expert system
(A) contains declarative knowledge
(B) contains procedural knowledge
(C) features the retrieval of stored information
(D) experts users to draw own conclusion

19. The virtual memory addressing capability of 80386 is
(A) 4 GB (B) 16 GB
(C) 64 GB (D) 64 TB

20. The 80486 microprocessor from Intel consists of
(A) a fast 32 bit CPU but no coprocessor
(B) a 32 bit CPU and an 80387 coprocessor only
(C) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor and memory management unit (MMU) only
(D) a 32 bit CPU, a 80387 coprocessor, memory management unit and a cache me

DISCLAIMER : The model question paper only offers a broad overview and does not purport to represent either the syllabus or the pattern of questions that would appear in the Engineering Knowledge Test.