Bihar Public Service Commission Management Exam Paper

1. The proper system for education is:
(a) The present examination-system
(b) The examination-system with books
(c) Semester system
(d) Objective question paper
Ans. (c)
2. Hypothesis can not be stated in:
(a) Null and question form terms
(b) Declarative terms
(c) General terms.
(d) Directional terms
Ans. (c)
3. Satellite communication works through:
(a) Radar
(b) Transponder
(c) Receptor
(d) Transmitter
Ans. (b)
4. Computer can:
(a) Process both quantitative and qualitative information
(b) Store huge information
(c) Process information and fast accurately
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
5. Informal communication network with in the organization is known as:
(a) Grape vine communication
(b) Interpersonal communication
(c) Mass communication
(d) Interpersonal communication
Ans. (a)
6. Linear programming models solve problems dealing with:
(a) Relatives and absolutes
(b) Routes and mixes
(c) Dispersions and similarities
(d) Rupees and percentages
Ans. (b)
7. Hierarchy has been described as the Scalar process by:
(a) L. D. White
(b) P. H. Appleby
(c) Mooney and Reilley
(d) Gullick and Urwick
Ans. (d)
8. Henry Fayol supports the:
(a) Humanistic approach
(b) Mechanistic approach
(c) Organic approach
(d) Scientific approach
Ans. (b)
9. The main focus of Human Relations theory is on:
(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Individual
(d) Participatory decision making
Ans. (c)
10. Environment is synonymous with:
(a) Task
(b) Relations
(c) People
(d) Situational variables
Ans. (d)
11. An organization principle based upon divisions of Labour is called:
(a) Line organization
(b) Functional organization
(c) Informal organization
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
12. In the organization, authority flows in a vertical line:
(a) From the top downward
(b) From the bottom upward
(c) Both ways downward and upward
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
13. Match the following:
A. Advisory function 1. Staff executives
B. Manpower development 2. Directing
C. Guiding function 3. Line executives
D. Managerial authority 4. Staffing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (b)
14. Dorwin Cartwright and Alvin Zander identified the following two variables:
(i) Employee-oriented
(ii) Production-oriented
(iii) Goal-oriented
(iv) Group -oriented
The correct code is:
(a) (i) and (U)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Ans. (c)
15. Quantitative techniques used to solve business problems are called:
(a) operations management
(b) operation science
(c) operation research
(d) management operation
Ans. (c)
16. Assertion (A): A tenet of scientific management is co-operation and harmony between workers and managers.
Reason (R): Taylor believed in participative management.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
17. Assertion (A): According to Taylor, one of the best way of doing each task leads to increase in productivity in organization.
Reason (R): It was the management’s responsibility alone to find out this one of the best way.
Codes:
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)
18. Which of the following creates time utility?
(a) Farmer
(b) Carpenter
(c) Trader
(d) Driver
Ans. (c)
19. Match the following:
A. Responsiveness of demand to change in price 1. Income elasticity of demand
B. Responsiveness of demand to change in tastes 2. Price elasticity of demand
C. Responsiveness of demand to change in income 3. Cross elasticity of demand
D. Responsiveness of demand to change in price 4. Taste elasticity of demand
of related goods.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (d)
20. Assertion (A): The theory and hypotheses of Argyris suggest no relationship between personal development of the individual and the organizational situation.
Reason (R): The principles and characteristics of a formal organization, in the opinion of Argyris, are incongruent to the needs of adult human beings.
Codes:
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
21. Management by objectives is implemented in an organization by stages, one such stage action planning, includes:
I. Assigning responsibilities for achieving objectives
II. Choosing strategies appropriate to the objectives
III. Allocating resources for achieving objectives
IV. Scheduling specific activities to achieve maximum resource utilization
Identify from th following combinations the correct sequence in which the action planning stages are implemented
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, III, IV, I
(c) III, IV, I, II
(d) II, I, III, IV
Ans. (d)
22. What is BIS?
(a) Business Information System
(b) Business of Industrial Sale
(c) Bureau of Indian Standard
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c))
23. Match List-I (Activity) with List-Il (Associated organization) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Mutual fund 1. Stock exchange
B. Public issue of capital 2. Assets management company
C. Forward trading 3. Merchant banking
D. Option pricing 4. Forex market
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
24. Which of the following are the methods of market new issues of securities?
I. Listing of securities
II. Jobbers and brokers
III. Private placement of securities
IV. Privileged subscriptions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II, III, and IV
Ans. (c)
25. SEBI was established in:
(a) 1993
(b) 1992
(c) 1988
(d) 1990
Ans. (c)
26. Increase in net RBI credit for central government represents:
(a) Budgetary Deficit
(b) Revenue Deficit
(c) Fiscal Deficit
(d) Monetized Deficit
Ans. (d)
27. The famous book “The Philosophy of Management” was written by:
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Oliver Scheldon
(c) F. W. Taylor
(d) Urwick
Ans. (b)
28. Arrange the following ingredients of communication process in the proper order:
1. Message
2. Receiver
3. Encoder
4. Channel
5. Decoder
(a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(b) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
Ans. (c)
29. Marginal Revenue will be negative if the demand is:
(a) Relatively elastic
(b) Unitary elastic
(c) Relatively inelastic
(d) Perfectly elastic
Ans. (c)
30. Price control; is one of the monopoly regulations which is most advantageous for:
(a) The producer
(b) The consumer
(c) The government
(d) The seller
Ans. (b)
31. Which one of the following is considered as the first principle of organization?
(a) Delegation
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Unity of command
(d) Supervision
Ans. (b)
32. Find the odd one out:
(a) Human relations theory
(b) Informal functioning
(c) Humanistic theory
(d) Structural theory
Ans. (d)
33. The real aim of production is:
(a) To create material goods
(b) To eliminate poverty
(c) To satisfy people’s wants
(d) To provide basic necessities.
Ans. (c)
34. At the point of inflexion, the marginal utility is:
(a) Increasing
(c) Maximum
(b) Decreasing
(d) Negative
Ans. (c)
35. “Production” may be defined as an act of:
(a) Creating utility
(b) Earning profit
(c) Destroying utility
(d) Providing services
Ans. (a)
36. The Scientific Management stressed upon:
1. Rationality
2. Specialization
3. Technical Competence
4. Predictability
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
37. Arrange the Maslow’s Need Hierarchy in the descending order:
1. Social
2. Self-Actualization
3. Physiological
4. Ego
5. Security
(a) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
Ans. (d)
38. According to which theory, leadership is multi dimensional?
(a) Behavioural Theory
(b) Situational Theory
(c) Trait Theory
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
39. Which of the following according to Hertzberg are not the motivators?
1. Responsibility
2. Recognition
3. Interpersonal relations
4. Work itself
Ans. (c)
40. The practice of placing a candidate at the right job is:
(a) Selection
(b) Placement
(c) Interview
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
41. Selection process in any organization is usually proceeded by the preparation of:
(a) Human resources audit
(b) Operations audit
(c) Human resources inventory
(d) Human resources accounting
Ans. (c)
42. A written statement of the main duties and responsibilities which a particular job entails is called:
(a) Job analysis
(b) Job specification
(c) Job description
(d) Job evaluation
Ans. (c)
43. Partnership is a form of business organization in which business debts can be recovered from:
(a) The managing partners
(b) MI the managers and partners
(c) The firm and the managers
(d) The firm and all the partners
Ans. (d)
44. The main objective of Stock Exchange is to:
(a) Provide facilities for speculation
(b) Safeguard the interest of investors
(c) Help in the capital formation in the country
(d) Provide a ready market for securities
Ans. (b)
45. Contango charge is paid by a:
(a) Bull speculator to bear speculator
(b) Bear speculator to bull speculator
(c) Lame duck to bull speculator
(d) Bull to lane duck speculator
Ans. (a)
46. MRTP Act came into force in:
(a) 1969
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1980
Ans. (
47. Dumping is an example of:
(a) Monopolistic practice in international trade
(b) Monopoly in international trade
(c) Oligopoly in international trade
(d) Perfect competition in international trade
Ans. (a)
48. A critical activity is defined as one whose:
(a) Total float is zero
(b) Free float is zero
(c) Duration is the longest
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
49.‘t’ Distribution was discovered by:
(a) Karl Pearson
(b) Fisher
(c) Laplace
(d) Gosset
Ans. (d)
50. Scheduled bank is that bank which is:
(a) Nationalized
(b) Not nationalized
(c) Bared at foreign country
(d) Include in the second schedule of RBI
Ans. (d)

Bihar PSC Combined (Pre) Competitive Examination 2011

(Exam Held on: 17-04-2011)

1. In which country is 'Takla Makan' desert situated?
(A) Kazakhstan
(B) Turkmenistan
(C) Uzbekistan
(D) China
Answer: D
2. Which strait connects Red Sea and Indian Ocean?
(A) Bab-el-Mandeb
(B) Hormuz
(C) Bosporus
(D) Malacca
Answer: A
3. Where is 'Ninety East Ridge' situated?
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
Answer: B
4. Which of the following is not a capital city?
(A) Canberra
(B) Sydney
(C) Wellington
(D) Riyadh
Answer: B
5. The highest coal-producing country in the world is
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) China
(D) Russia
Answer: C
6. Folding is the result of
(A) epeirogenetic force
(8) Coriolis force
(C) orogenetic force
(D) exogenetic force
Answer: C
7. Amritsar and Shimla are almost on the same latitude, but their climate difference is due to
(A) the difference in their altitudes
(B) their distance from sea
(C) snowfall in Shimla
(D) pollution in Amritsar
Answer: A
8. Coal mines in Jharkhand are located at
(A) Jharia
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Ranchi
(D) Lohardaga
Answer: A
9. Major source of oceanic salinity is
(A) rivers
(B) land
(C) wind
(D) ash from volcanoes
10. The large States of India in the order of area are
(A) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra
(C) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan
Answer: A
11. Bihar is the -- largest State of India according to Census 2001.
(A) second
(B) third
(C) fourth
(D) fifth
Answer: B
12. The highest wheat-producing State of India is
(A) Haryana
(B) Punjab
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: D
13. TISCO plant is located near
(A) Patna
(B) Darbhanga
(C) Dhanbad
(D) Tatanagar
Answer: D
14. Which States in India are the largest producers of sugarcane?
(A) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh
Answer: A
15. Which of the following States has the largest number of people belonging to Scheduled Caste?
(A) Bihar
(B) West Bengal
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punja
Answer: C
16. According to 2001 Census, what is the total population of Bihar?
(A) 82998509
(B) 76210007
(C) 96878627
(D) 80176197
Answer: A
17. The East Central Railway zone headquarters is located at
(A) Patna
(B) Hajipur
(C) M uzaffarpur
(D) Katihar
Answer: B
18. Where is Industries Commissioner Office of Bihar situated?
(A) Patna
(B) Gaya
(C) Hajipur
(D) Muzaffarpur
Answer: A
19. North Bihar is famous for
(A) agricultural prosperity
(B) heavy industries
(C) flood
(D) famine
Answer: C
20. Which one is not located on National Highway-2 (NH-2)?
(A) Aurangabad
(B) Sasaram
(C) Mohania
(D) Patna
Answer: D
21. Congress passed the 'Swaraj' resolution in the year 1905. The purpose of the resolution was
(A) right to make a constitution for themselves but it was not done
(B) to secure self-rule
(C) responsible government
(D) self-government
Answer: B
22. The Provincial were constituted Act of Governments under the
(A) 1935
(B) 1932
(C) 1936
(D) 1947
Answer: A
23. The Indian comprises of Constitution
(A) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
(B) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules
(C) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules
(D) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules
Answer: A
24. The Rajya Sabha consists of
(A) 280 members of which 20 members are nominated by the President of India
(B) 275 members of which 18 members are nominated by the President of India
(C) 250 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India
(D) 252 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India
Answer: C
25. January 26 was selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution, because
(A) the Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930
(B) on that day the Quit India Movement was started in 1942
(C) it was considered to be an auspicious day
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
26. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to
(A) the Comptroller and Auditor General
(B) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) the President of India
Answer: B
27. Of the following statements, which one is not correct?
(A) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in money matter
(B) Money Bills originate in the Rajya Sabha
(C) The Rajya Sabha has to pass Bills within 14 days after they are passed by the Lok Sabha
(D) The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the Money Bill with some recommendations to the Lok Sabha
Answer: B
28. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?
(A) Right to constitutional remedies
(B) Freedom to speech
(C) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country
(D) Freedom to acquire property
Answer: A
29. Who is the head of the National Defence Committee?
(A) Home Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Vice-President
30. 'National Emergency' may be declared by the President of India in line with
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 395
Answer: C
31. Of the following statements, which one is not correct?
(A) Supreme Court was constituted in 1950
(B) Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the country
(C) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/Tribunals except from Court-martial
(D) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/ Tribunals as well as from Court-martial
Answer: D
32. Who is the constitutional head of the State Governments?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) Speaker
(D) High Court Judge
Answer: B
33. Commercial sources of energy purely consist of
(A) power, coal, oil, gas, hydro-electricity and uranium
(B) coal, oil, firewood, vegetable waste and agricultural waste
(C) power, coal, animal dung and firewood
(D) coal, gas, oil and firewood
Answer: A
34. In India, per capita consumption of energy in 1994 was
(A) 300 kg of oil equivalent
(B) 360 kg of oil equivalent
(C) 243 kg of oil equivalent
(D) 343 kg of oil equivalent
Answer: A
35. When did the first oil crisis/ energy crisis occur in India?
(A) During 1950's and 1960's
(B) During 1930's and 1940's
(C) During 1990's and 2000's
(D) During 1970's and 1980's
Answer: D
36. Consider the following reasons for financial sickness of State Electricity Boards (SEBs) in India:
I. Sale of power to agricultural and domestic consumers below the cost of production
II. Transmission and distribution losses are very high
III. Lack of commercial autonomy for SEBs
IV. State Governments have implemented social subsidy policies through SEBs
37. Which of the above are correct?
(A) I, II and III
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) II, III and IV
37. Which type of economy does India have?
(A) Socialist
(B) Gandhian
(C) Mixed
(D) Free
Answer: C
38. When was 'Speed Post Service' launched by the Indian Postal Department as competition to the 'Courier Service'?
(A) 1988
(B) 1987
(C) 1989
(D) 1986
Answer: D
39. We witnessed the first telephones in India in which year?
(A) 1951
(B) 1981
(C) 1851
(D) 1861
Answer: D
40. Consider the following problems being faced by the Indian Coal Industry :
I. Poor quali ty of coal and bottlenecks m the coal movement
II. Low utilisation capacity of washeries
III. Growing dependence on the import of coking coal
IV. Administered prices
Which of the above are correct?
(A) II, III and IV
(B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I, II and III
Answer: B
41. Name the committee which was set up by the NDC in 1957 for the reorganisation of CDP and NES, which suggested a three tier system of rural local government
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) Maharashtra Committee on Democratic Decentralisation
(D) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
Answer: A
42. Ashok Mehta recommended
(A) three-tier government of Panchayati Raj Committee
(B) two-tier government of Panchayati Raj
(C) single-tier government of Panchayati Raj
(D) multiple-tier government of Panchayati Raj
Answer: B
43. Consider the following about the 'Rolling Plan':
I. A plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
II. A plan for a fixed number of years, say 3, 4 or 5
III. It is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
IV. A perspective plan for 10, 15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct?
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) I, II, III and IV
Answer: B
44. In which year was the 'Planning Commission' set up in India?
(A) 1950
(B) 1947
(C) 1948
(D) 1951
Answer: A
45. Patna International Airport is directly connected with
(A) Kathmandu (Nepal), New Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Lucknow, Varanasi and Ranchi
(B) Bengaluru, Hyderabad and Dhaka
(C) Islamabad, Dhaka and Bengaluru
(D) Washington, Dhaka and Chennai
Answer: A
46. In Bihar, air services are provided by
(A) only Indian Airlines
(B) only Sahara Airlines
(C) only Royal Nepal Airlines
(D) Indian Airlines, Sahara Airlines and Royal Nepal Airlines
Answer: D
47. For Bihar, in 1993-94, the Planning Commission estimated that percentage of below poverty line (BPL) was
(A) 55
(B) 65
(C) 45
(D) 35
48. In Bihar, though 'Zamindari' was statutorily abolished In 1952, the social base of land control remained in the grip of
(A) Middle Caste Hindus
(B) Scheduled Caste Hindus
(C) Dominant Caste Hindus
(D) Scheduled Tribe Hindus
Answer: C
49. Bihar State (before separation) had how many 'Industrial Area Development Authorities'?
(A) Six, viz., Adityapur, Bokaro, Patna, Ranchi, Darbhanga and Muzaffarpur
(B) Five, viz., Adityapur, Bokaro, Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur and Patna
(c) Seven, viz., Adityapur, Darbhanga, Ranchi and Bokaro, Patna, Muzaffarpur, Bhojpur
(d) Four, viz., Adityapur, Bhojpur and Muzaffarpur, Khagaria
50. In Bihar, name the scheme which aims at building up infrastructural facilities of high standard, required for establishment of 'Export oriented Units'
(A) Integrated Infrastructural Development (IID)
(B) Export Promotion Industrial Park (EPIP)
(C) Concept of Build-Operate- Transfer (BOT)
(D) Software/Hardware Technology Park (STP /HTP)
51. "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it." Who said?
(A) M. K. Gandhi
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Bhagat Singh
Answer: C
52. The Madras Mahajan Sabha was established in the year
(A) 1880
(B) 1881
(C) 1882
(D) 1883
Answer: D
53. How many representatives took part in the First Session of the Indian National Congress?
(A) 52
(B) 62
(C) 72
(D) 82
Answer: C
54. The first Indian Governor General of Independent India was
(A) Raja Gopalachari
(B) Surinder Nath
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) B. R. Ambedkar
Answer: A
55. When was the National Council of Education established?
(A) 15th August, 1903
(B) 15th August, 1904
(C) 15th August, 1905
(D) 15th August, 1906
Answer: D
56. The Non-Cooperation Movement was started in
(A) 1918
(B) 1920
(C) 1921
(D) 1922
Answer: B
57. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of
(A) the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(B) the Indian Councils Act, 1909
(C) the Government of India Act, 1919
(D) the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: C
58. Who is popularly known as 'Sher-e-Punjab,?
(A) Rajguru
(B) Bhagat Singh
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Udham Singh
Answer: C
59. Gandhi-Irwin Pact took place in
(A) 1930
(B) 1931
(C) 1932
(D) 1933
Answer: B
60. Which Round Table Conference held in 1932?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Answer: C
61. Who is associated with 'Abhinav Bharat'?
(A) V. D. Savarkar
(B) C. R. Das
(C) B. G. Tilak
(D) S. C. Bose
Answer: A
62. 'Do or Die' is associated with the following movement
(A) Dandi
(B) Non-Cooperation
(C) Khilafat
(D) Quit India
Answer: D
63. With whose efforts was Second Bihar Provincial Congress Session held?
(A) G. K. Gokhale
(B) Shri Deepnarayan Singh
(C) Shri Krishna
(D) Surendranath Banerjee
Answer: B
64. At which place was the 27th Session of the Indian National Congress held?
(A) Bhagalpur
(B) Patna
(C) Ranchi
(D) Bankipur
65. The 16th Session of Bihari Students' Conference at Hazaribag took place in
(A) 1921
(B) 1922
(C) 1923
(D) 1924
Answer: A
66. The editor of 'Bihari', a leading newspaper of Bihar, was
(A) Babu G. Prasad
(B) Babu Ram Prasad
(C) Babu Gopal Prasad
(D) Babu Maheshwar Prasad
Answer: D
67. Raj Kumar Shukla was resident of the village
(A) Murli Bharhawa
(B) Murli Bheet
(C) Murli Dheer
(D) Murli Kher
Answer: A
68. Shri Nivaranchandra Dasgupta belonged to
(A) Patna
(B) Purulia
(C) Hazipur
(D) Meenapur
Answer: B
69. Kunwar Singh was the King of
(A) Hamirpur
(B) Dheerpur
(C) Jagdishpur
(D) Rampur
Answer:C
70. Lord Sinha had resigned in 1921 from the post of Governor of
(A) Bihar-Orissa
(B) Bengal
(C) Punjab
(D) Madras
Answer: A
71. The value of x - [y - {z - (x - y - z)}j is
(A) x+ y+z
(B) x - y-z
(C) 1
(D) °
Answer: C
72. If the function f : I --? R, f(x) = log x then the value of f(x) + f(y) is
(A) f(xy)
(B) f(x+ y)
(C) f (x/y)
(d) f(y/x)
Answer: C
73. The median of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16 is
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C)10
(D)11
Answer: B
74. The inverse of the matrix is
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: C
75. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 12 cm. Then the area swept by the minute hand in one minute will be
(A) 22·12 cm2
(B) 23·10 cm2
(C) 24·12 cm2
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
76. A player completes 2200-metre race in any circular path with 7 revolutions. Then the radius of the circular path is ( 1t = ~2)
(A) 30 metres
(B) 40 metres
(C) 50 metres
(D) 60 metres
Answer: C
77. The coordinates of the mid- point on joining the points P (4, 6) and Q (- 4, 8) will be
(A) (2, 7)
(B) (7, 2)
(C) (7, 0)
(D) (0, 7)
Answer: D
78. The solution of the differential equation
d2 d
-----.l:L - 3-.1{ + 2y = e5x
dx2 dx
is
A) y = C eX + C e2x + ~e5x
1 2 12
B) Y = C e-x + C e2x + ~e5X
1 2 12
C) y = C eX + C e-2x + ~ e5x
1 2 12
79. In triangle PQR if L.P = 1200 and PQ = PR, then L. Q and L.R will be respectively
(A) 60°, 30°
(B) 30°, 40°
(C) 30°, 30°
(D) 20°, 40°
Answer: C
80. The value of is
lim X?0
(A) 0
(B) loge ~ b
(C) log - ea
(D) a- b
Answer: B
81. The visible range of solar radiation is
(A) 100-400 nm (B) 400-700 nm (C) 740-10000 nm (D) None of the above
Answer: B
82. Plants which grow on saline soils are
(A) xerophytes
(B) hydrophytes
(C) halophytes
(D) succulents
Answer: C
83. Environment is a composite state of
(A) biotic factors
(B) physiographic factors (C) abiotic factors
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
84. Water is conducted in vascular plants by
(A) phloem tissue
(B) parenchyma tissue (C) meristems
(D) xylem tissue
Answer: C
85. Which component of plants receives stimulus for flowering?
(A) Stems
(B) Branches
(C) Leaves
(D) Roots
86. Minerals are
(A) liquids
(B) inorganic solids(C) gases
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
87. Development of the natural systems is described as
(A)~nction of the systems
(B) evolution of the systems
(C) self-sustained process of the systems
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
88. Genetics deals with
(A) Mendel's laws
(B) organic evolution
(C) DNA structure
(D) heredity and variations
Answer: C
89. Mendel's principles of inheri- tance are based on
(A) vegetative reproduction (B) asexual reproduction (C) sexual reproduction
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
90. Embryo is found in
(A) flowers
(B) leaves
(C) seeds
(D) buds
Answer: C
91. What soil particles are present in loamy soils?
(A) Sand particles(B) Clay particles (C) Silt particles
(D) All types of particles
Answer: D
92. A single type of atom is found in
(A) compounds of minerals
(B) mixture of minerals
(C) native elements
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
93. Soil water available to plants is maximum in
(A) clayey soil (8) silty soil (C) sandy soil (D) loamy soil
Answer: C
94. Capillaries are most effective in (A) clayey soil
(8) silty soil
(C) sandy soil
(D) loamy soil
Answer: C
95. Photosynthesis occurs in
(A) nucleus
(b) mitochondria
(C) chloroplast
(D) peroxisome
Answer: C
96. Continents have drifted apart because of
(A) volcanic eruptions (8) tectonic activities
(C) folding and faulting of rocks (D) All of the above
Answer: C
97. Which of the following do not belong to solar system?
(A) Asteroids
(8) Comets
(C) Planets
(D) Nebulae
Answer: C
98. Table salt (NaCI) is a product of
(A) weak acid and weak base
(B) strong acid and strong base
(C) weak acid and strong base
(D) strong acid and weak base
99. Sexual reproduction causes genetic variation because of
(A) blending of genes
(B) chromosomal changes
(C) Shuffling of genes
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
100. Average salinity of water of Arabian Sea is
(A) 25 ppt (8) 35 ppt (C) 45 ppt (D) 55 ppt
Answer: C
101. Who among the following is the winner of the Mahatma Gandhi International Award for Peace and Reconciliation, 2009?
(A) Yukia Amano
(B) Aung San Suu Kyi
(C) Bill Gates
(D) Hillary Clinton
Answer: B
102. 'Durand Cup' is associated with the game of
(A) football
(B) polo
(C) cricket
(D) hockey
Answer: A
103. For which word, the letter 'G' has been used in '2G Spectrum'?
(A) Global
(B) Government
(C) Generation
(D) Google
Answer: C
104. Former Central Minister for Communication and Information Technology, Mr. A. Raja belongs to which of the following parties?
(A) Congress
(B) BJP
(C) Communist Party of India
(D) DMK
Answer: D
105. Which one of the following numbered Rajdhani trains covers the longest distance?
(A) 12429 Bangalore City Junction
(B) 12431 Trivandrum Central
(C) 12433 Chennai Central
(D) 12435 Dibrugarh Town
Answer: B
106. What is the minimum age of a person whose photographing, fingerprinting and iris mapping will be done for the Census of 2011?
(A) 12 years
(B) 15 years
(C) 18 years
(D) 21 years
Answer: B
107. The Union Cabinet, on August 2010, decided to form institutes like the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in which six States?
(A) Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand
(B) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Kerala, Gujarat
(C) Bihar, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra
(D) Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Assam
Answer: A
108. Which was reported the richest party according to the 'National Election Watch' on August 2010?
(A) BSP
(B) BJP
(C) Socialist Party
(D) Congress
Answer: D
109. Which party-wise performance is correct for Bihar Assembly Elections, 2010 in comparison to the elections of 2005?
JDU BJP RJD WP CONG OTHERS
(A) +40 +25 -30 -10 -7 -19
(B) +25 +34 -20 -5 -3 -11
(C) +27 +36 -32 -7 -5 -19
(D) + 17 +46 -15 -10 -10 -10
Answer: C
110. Till 2010, which State Governments have provided 50 percent reservation for women in local bodies?
(A) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan
(B) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh
(C) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala
(D) Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
Answer: B
111. 'AVAHAN', the Indian segment of 'Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation', is engaged in the prevention of
(A) dengue
(B) polio
(C) HIV / AIDS
(D) filariasis
Answer: C
112. A recently held underwater meeting has drawn attention world over. The meeting was held by
(A) Some Somali pirates to make a new strategy for capturing ships for ransom
(B) Some environmental scientists for promoting awareness for saving water
(C) some activists environmental awareness for promoting against air pollution
(D) The cabinet of a country to highlight the threat of rising sea level for any country
Answer: D
113. Which one of the following cities is not located on the bank of river Ganga?
(A) Fatehpur
(B) Bhagalpur
(C) Uttarkashi
(D) Kanpur
Answer: C
114. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India?
(A) Right to Information
(B) Right to Work
(C) Right to Education
(D) Right to Housing
Answer: C
115. The time at Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich. Hence, it is located at
(A) 30° W longitude
(B) 30° E longitude
(C) 28° E longitude
(D) 28° W longitude
Answer: B
116. The headquarters of International Court of Justice is at
(A) Hague
(B) New York
(C) Geneva
(D) Paris
Answer: A
117. In the world's best countries' list, compiled by the reputed 'News Week' magazine in 2010, the first position went to Finland. What was the rank of India?
(A)17
(B)48
(C)66
(D)78
Answer: D
118. Which university was ranked first in the list of '2010 Academic Rankings of the World Universities '?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru University, India
(B) Cambridge University, Britain
(C) Harvard University, USA
(D) Massachusetts Institute of Technology, USA
Answer: C
119. Which date is known as 'Diabetes Day'?
(A) 14th February
(B) 14th May
(C) 14th September
(D) 14th November
Answer: D
120. In which country, Ms. Julia Gillard was made the first woman Prime Minister in the year 2010?
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) Germany
(D) Poland
Answer: A
121. Which country's parliament has banned 'Burqa' by passing a law on 14th September, 2010?
(A) USA
(B) France
(C) Italy
(D) Holland
Answer: B
122. Mr. Arjun Munda was on September 11, 2010 sworn in as the Chief Minister of Jharkhand. How many MLAs in the 81- member Assembly supported him?
(A) 41
(C) 50
(B) 45
(D) 55
Answer: B
123. Mr. P. J. Thomas has been appointed as the Central Vigilance Commissioner on September 7,2010. He is an IAS Officer of the following State's cadre
(A) Assam
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: C
124. What was the maximum amount which has been provided as financial autonomy by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises of Union Government to the 'Mini Ratna', category I?
(A) Rs 250 crore
(B) Rs 350 crore
(C) Rs 400 crore
(D) Rs 500 crore
Answer: D
125. When was the Right to Education added through the amendment in the Constitution of India?
(A) 1st April, 2010
(B) 1st August, 2010
(C) 1st October, 2010
(D) 1st December, 2010
Answer: A
126. Match the achievements of India in the XVI Asian Games, 2010 :
1. Rank P. 14
2. Gold Q. 33
3. Silver R. 06
4. Bronze S. 17
(A.) 1 2 3 4
Q R P S
(B) 1 2 3 4
R P S Q
(c.) 1 2 3 4
P Q R S
(D) 1 2 3 4
S R P Q
Answer: C
127. To which institute, Shubha Tole, the first woman awardee of prestigious Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize, 2010 in the field of Science, belongs?
(A) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai
(B) Indian Institute of Science Education and Research, Pune
(C) Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur
(D) Indian Institute of Science"Bengaluru
Answer: A
128. Which Indian was honoured by the 'World Statesman Award, 2010'?
(A) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(C) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(D) Lal Krishna Advani
Answer: C
129. India's Third Research Centre at Antarctica is name as
(A) Bharti
(B) Swagatam
(C) Hindustan
(D) Maitri
Answer: A
130. In Commonwealth Games, 2010, India won 101 medals. Out of them, how many medals have been received by team events, women and men respectively?
(A) 0, 37, 64
(B) 2, 35, 64
(C) 1, 37, 63
(D) 1, 36, 64
Answer: B
131. Which of the following is a Harappan port?
(A) Alexandria
(B) Lothal
(C) Mahasthangarh
(D) Nagapattanam
Answer: B
132. The Gupta emperor who defeated the 'Hunas' was
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Skandagupta
(D) Ramgupta
Answer: C
133. What is the name of Kalhana's book?
(A) Arthashastra
(B) Indica
(C) Purana
(D) Rajtarangini
Answer: D
134. Which inscription tells about the various achievements of Rudradaman I?
(A) Junagarh
(B) Bhitari
(C) Nasik
(D) Sanchi
Answer: A
135. Who was the first ruler of the Slave dynasty?
(A) Qutubuddin Aibak (B) Iltutmish (C) Razia (D) 'Balban
Answer: A
136. Who was the ruler of Devgiri at the time of Alauddin Khalji's invasion?
(A) Prataprudra bev (B) Ramchandra Dev (C) Malik Kafoor (D) Rana Ratan Singh
Answer: B
137. Who of the following Muslim rulers abolished the pilgrimage tax?
(A) Bahalol Lodi (B) Sher Shah (C) Humayun (D) Akbar
Answer: D
138. What was 'Dar-ul-Shafa' established by Firoz Tughlaq?
(A) An alms house
(B) A free hospital
(C) A library
(D) A guesthouse for pilgrims
Answer: B
139. The 'Permanent Settlement' was made with
(A) Zamindars (B) village communities (C) Muqaddamas (D) peasants
Answer: A
140. Who was the founder of 'Prarthana Samaj?
(A) Atmaram Panduranga (B) Tilak (C) Annie Besant (D) Rasbihari Ghosh
Answer: A
141. Who was the father of Indian Renaissance?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dayananda Saraswati
(C) Shraddhananda
(D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Answer: D
142. 'Swaraj Dal' was founded by
(A) Tilak and Chittaranjan Das
(B) Gandhi and Motilal Nehru
(C) Gandhi and Tilak
(D) Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru
Answer: D
143. Who founded the 'Theosophical Society'?
(A)Madame H, P. Blavatsky
(B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Swami Vivekananda

Answer: A
144. Which one of the following books was written by Tilak?
(A) India in Transition
(B) Gita Rahasya
(C) Gokhale-My Political Guru
(D) Discovery of India
Answer: B
145. Where was Mahaveer Swami born?
(A) Kundagram
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Magadh
(D) Vaishali
Answer: D
146. Where did Mahatma Buddha's 'Mahaparinirvan' take place?
(A) Lumbini
(B) Bodh Gaya
(C) Kushinara
(D) Kapilavastu
Answer: C
147. At which place did Mahatma Buddha give his first 'Dharmachakrapravartan '?
(A) Lumbini
(B) Sarnath
(C) Pataliputra
(D) Vaishali
Answer: B
148. What was the early capital of Magadh?
(A) Pataliputra
(B) Vaishali
(C) Rajagriha (Girivraja)
(D) Champa
Answer: C
149. What was the name of the dynasty of Ajatshatru?
(A) Maurya
(B) Haryanka
(C) Nanda
(D) Gupta
Answer: B
150. The Third Buddhist Council was convented at
(A) Takshashila
(B) Sarnath
(C) Bodh Gaya
(D) Pataliputra
Answer: D

L.I.C. (ADO) Recruitment Exam Solved Paper Held on 10-6-2007

English Language

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.



Politicians and generals talk of military strategies and manoeuvers but something completely different is needed. Stability will come only when economic opportunities exist, when youth can find jobs and support families rather than seeking their livelihood in violence. Peace can only be achieved with a withdrawal of foreign troops, sanctions and peace-keepers and the arrival of jobs, productive farms and factories, healthcare and schools. Repeatedly the fragile peace in impoverished countries has broken down because of the lack of economic follow-up. Despite promises of aid, the actual record of international aid to post war reconstruction is deficient.



Once the war ends agencies involved in post war relief efforts fail to understand how to start or restart economic development in a low income setting. They squander time, surplus aid funds and opportunities because they are not familiar with local conditions and do not under-stand their point of view. There are distinct phases of outside help to end a conflict. In the first phase focus is on providing food, water, shelter and medicine to refugees i.e., humani-tarian. In the second, emphasis is on the refugees returning home while in the last phase long term investments and strengthening of courts is the main focus.



However once a conflict is over aid agencies sanctioned by the World Bank send study groups instead of requisite personnel. There is a gap of several years before moving from humanitarian relief to economic deve-lopment. By the time such help arrives the war has restarted. It is possible to restart economic develop-ment through targeted ‘quick impact’ initiatives. Most economies in post conflict countries are based on agri-culture. Providing free packages of seeds, fertilizers and low cost equip-ment quickly will ensure that former soldiers will return to their farms and establish their livelihood. But the window of opportunity closes quickly and one has to implement these measures almost immediately.



1. Which of the following is a reason, post conflict reconstruc-tion efforts have failed ?

(A) Aid organizations do not understand issues from the pers-pective of the poor

(B) Rapid economic develop-ment in low income countries

(C) World Bank studies are not valid

(D) International aid organiza-tions become too involved in reconstruction efforts

(E) None of these



2. Where does the problem lie in implementing post war relief measures ?

(A) Aid agencies fail to study the situation

(B) Economic development measures are too rapid

(C) Focus on economic deve-lopment not humanitarian aid

(D) Lack of funds to implement programmes

(E) Lack of essential and quali-fied personnel



3. According to the author how can political stability be achieved ?

(A) Increasing the number of foreign troops in areas of conflict

(B) Depending more on foreign aid

(C) Following recommendations given by the World Bank

(D) Providing economic oppor-tunities

(E) None of these



4. Which of the following is not true in the context of the pas-sage ?

(A) Focus in the first phase of a war is on providing humani-tarian aid

(B) Sanctions are not a means to ensure peace

(C) Adequate time must be taken to plan and implement quick impact strategies

(D) Providing employment to the younger generation will prevent wars

(E) Focus on delivering justice through courts should be in the last phase of conflict aid



5. How can economic development be restarted in an impoverished country ?

(A) Long term studies should be commissioned

(B) Retaining soldiers in the army to ensure law and order

(C) Restrict number of aid agencies to avoid waste

(D) Focusing on agricultural ini-tiatives

(E) Deploying peace keepers in the country



6. What is the benefit of ‘quick impact’ aid ?

(A) Soldiers earn income from the army and their farms

(B) Providing alternate liveli-hood to soldiers before war can restart

(C) Free land is given to soldiers

(D) Price of equipment is low

(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 7 and 8) Choose the word that is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

7. exist

(A) live (B) fit

(C) create (D) occur

(E) survive



8. squander

(A) lavish (B) spend

(C) displace (D) lose

(E) misuse



Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. fragile

(A) weak (B) lasting

(C) long (D) strong

(E) unstable



10. deficient

(A) surplus (B) valued

(C) short (D) secure

(E) repaired



Directions—(Q. 11–15) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below it—

A. Strict obedience to these rules is called discipline.

B. In the same way, a society where rules are not followed cannot survive for long.

C. Only then a society can be run in an orderly fashion.

D. A society can exist properly only when men living in it agree upon certain rules of conduct.

E. For example, if the people on the road do not obey traffic rules there will be complete disorder and con-fusion.

F. Students must obey their teachers, children their parents, citizens the laws and so on and so forth.



11. Which of the following is the fifth sentence ?

(A) A (B) B

(C) C (D) E

(E) F



12. Which of the following is the sixth (Last) sentence ?

(A) A (B) B

(C) C (D) D

(E) E



13. Which of the following is the second sentence ?

(A) A (B) B

(C) C (D) D

(E) E



14. Which of the following is the first sentence ?

(A) A (B) B

(C) C (D) D

(E) E



15. Which of the following is the third sentence ?

(A) A (B) B

(C) C (D) E

(E) F



Directions—(Q. 16–20) Pick out the most effective word from among the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully com-plete.

16. She did not like to…………her decision like a dictator on her subordinates.

(A) divulge (B) prompt

(C) enforce (D) deploy

(E) make



17. People unfortunately………that money brings happiness.

(A) assume (B) deny

(C) object (D) rely

(E) conscious



18. The public have………a protest against the new rules of the budget.

(A) organize

(B) demonstrated

(C) compiled

(D) pursued

(E) launched



19. Sarojini Naidu will always be remembered for her……… to the national cause.

(A) blessing

(B) involvement

(C) pursuit

(D) dedication

(E) command



20. Poverty has to be………and the basic necessities of life should be made available to everyone.

(A) destroyed (B) eliminated

(C) finished (D) magnified

(E) considered



Directions:(Q. 21–25) In each of these questions, two of the words are related in some wayi.e., they are similar or opposites. Pick out the option which represents that pair.

21. 1. moderate 2. easy

3. significant 4. strenuous

(A) 2–4 (B) 1–2

(C) 1–3 (D) 2–3

(E) 3–4



22. 1. focus 2. trivial

3. vital 4. site

(A) 1–2 (B) 2–4

(C) 1–3 (D) 3–4

(E) 2–3



23. 1. defer 2. dispute

3. prefer 4. challenge

(A) 2–3 (B) 1–3

(C) 2–1 (D) 2–4

(E) 3–4



24. 1. consequence

2. potential

3. influence

4. ability

(A) 4–3 (B) 2–4

(C) 2–3 (D) 1–3

(E) 4–1



25. 1. rebuke 2. oppose

3. praise 4. distrust

(A) 1–2 (B) 2–3

(C) 1–3 (D) 3–4

(E) 2–4



Directions—(Q. 26–35) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has beennumbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested, one of which fills the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Delinking of jobs from degrees is one of the …(26)… features of our education …(27)…. There has been a …(28)… fall in …(29)… in the acade-mic field in recent years. There is a …(30)… of degree holders in the country, as a result, university degrees have …(31)… their value and charm while the number of students in colleges and universities of the country has been …(32)… rising. Consequently thousands of graduates and post graduates come out of these institutions and stand in queues waiting to get some …(33)… jobs …(34)… in the country. Moreover, these degree holders do not have any technical or vocational knowledge needed for a particular job. As a result, the number of educated unemployed has been rising …(35)…. It has created a very serious problem.

26. (A) minor

(B) trivial

(C) unachievable

(D) irrelevant

(E) salient



27. (A) process

(B) policy

(C) development

(D) guideline

(E) procedures



28. (A) expected (B) sheer

(C) rough (D) steep

(E) gentle

29. (A) assessment

(B) evaluation

(C) competence

(D) fees

(E) value



30. (A) flood (B) class

(C) party (D) mob

(E) rabble



31. (A) mislaid (B) lost

(C) increase (D) found

(E) establish



32. (A) slowly (B) hastily

(C) deeply (D) waiting

(E) out



33. (A) suitable (B) remain

(C) study (D) live

(E) place



34. (A) frequency

(B) occurrence

(C) event

(D) chance

(E) blocking

35. (A) fever (B) outshine

(C) lean (D) dwarfed

(E) horribly



Answers With Explanations

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (D)

6. (E) 07. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A)

11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (E) 15. (E)

16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (E) 19. (D) 20. (B)

21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C)

26. (E) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (A)

31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (E)

LIC (ADO) RECRUITMENT EXAM SOLVED PAPER JUNE 10, 2007

NUMERICAL ABILITY


Directions—(Q. 1 to 25) What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following questions?

1. 15·36 ´ 2·8 + 7·6 = ?

(A) 326·86 (B) 42·364

(C) 50·608 (D) 36·34

(E) None of these

2. 846 + 281 + (?) + 252 = 681

(A) 446 (B) 698

(C) – 446 (D) – 698

(E) None of these

3. = ?

(A) 0·8 (B) 8·10

(C) 10·5 (D) 0·81

(E) None of these



4. 39114 ÷ 246 ´ ? = 6201

(A) 37 (B) 39

(C) 43 (D) 41

(E) None of these



5. ´ + (85)2 = ?

(A) 7270 (B) 7280

(C) 7260 (D) 7250

(E) None of these



6. (7)3 ´ (3)3 ÷ (6)2 = ?

(A) 12348 (B) 85·75

(C) 1543·5 (D) 257·25

(E) None of these



7. ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E) None of these

8. 39% of ? – 24% of 390 = 171·60

(A) 650 (B) 580

(C) 740 (D) 630

(E) None of these



9. 8736 + 9121 + 4867 + 3308 = ?

(A) 26032 (B) 26320

(C) 23062 (D) 22603

(E) None of these



10. ?

(A) 59 (B) 67

(C) 61 (D) 57

(E) None of these



11. 7 – 6 = ?

(A) 1 (B) 1

(C) 1 (D) 1

(E) None of these



12. ?

(A) (B) 4

(C) (D) 2

(E) None of these



13. (666 ´ 66 ´ 6) ÷ ? = 499·5

(A) 462 (B) 532

(C) 540 (D) 396

(E) None of these



14. 3120 + ? ÷ 12·5 = 3563·36

(A) 5542 (B) 5446

(C) 5452 (D) 5354

(E) None of these



15. 449 ´ 367 = ?

(A) 164783 (B) 165681

(C) 164416 (D) 164049

(E) None of these



16. ´ = ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E) None of these



17. (51)2 – (47)2 + (32)2 = ?

(A) 3786 (B) 2596

(C) 1416 (D) 1296

(E) None of these



18. ÷ 4 ´ 26 = 247

(A) 1764 (B) 1296

(C) 1444 (D) 1369

(E) None of these



19. 0·576 + 2·4 ´ 1·5 = ?

(A) 2·874 (B) 4·276

(C) 2·8824 (D) 4·476

(E) None of these



20. = 17(?)

(A) 1·62 (B) 2·64

(C) 11·1 (D) 29·06

(E) None of these



21. ? + 3229 = 17368 – 4454

(A) 9676 (B) 9445

(C) 9658 (D) 9585

(E) None of these



22. ´ = ?

(A) 2793 (B) 2842

(C) 2679 (D) 2891

(E) None of these



23. ´ ? + 595 = 833

(A) 4480 (B) 4352

(C) 4608 (D) 4096

(E) None of these



24. 815964 – 697826 – 9674 – 6542 = ?

(A) 109122 (B) 101292

(C) 101922 (D) 110922

(E) None of these



25. (7928 – ?) ÷ 84 ´ 12 = 888

(A) 1705 (B) 1698

(C) 1710 (D) 1712

(E) None of these



26. Find out the average of the given numbers.

356, 449, 51, 652, 533, 105, 122

(A) 307 (B) 315

(C) 412 (D) 324

(E) None of these



27. The multiplication of two con-secutive numbers is 8556. What is the smaller number among them ?

(A) 94 (B) 92

(C) 91 (D) 93

(E) None of these



28. An amount of rupees 4500 is to be distributed among Shrikant, Ramakant and Bikrant in the ratio of 3 : 7 : 5 respectively. If Rs. 500 is added to each of the share, the new ratio will become…… ?

(A) 7 : 10 : 13 (B) 9 : 16 : 13

(C) 2 : 4 : 3 (D) 4 : 5 : 2

(E) None of these



29. If (67)2 is added to the square of a number, the addition thus obtained is 6605. What is that number ?

(A) 45 (B) 51

(C) 46 (D) 39

(E) None of these



30. What approximate value should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following ques-tion ?

7686 ´ 19 ÷ (17)2 = ?

(A) 505 (B) 485

(C) 545 (D) 575

(E) 615



31. If an amount of Rs. 39,856 is distributed equally amongst 18 persons, how much approximate amount would each person get ?

(A) Rs. 2,214 (B) Rs. 2,524

(C) Rs. 2,124 (D) Rs. 2,343

(E) Rs. 2,254



32. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two-digits of the same number is 9. The sum of the digits of the two-digit numbers is 17. What is the product of the two-digits of the two-digit number ?

(A) 64

(B) 63

(C) 72

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these



33. What is 260% of 6680 ?

(A) 18036 (B) 18704

(C) 16700 (D) 17368

(E) None of these



34. What amount of compound interest can be obtained on an amount of Rs. 18,000 at the rate of 10 p.c.p.a. at the end of three years ?

(A) Rs. 5,628 (B) Rs. 5,400

(C) Rs. 5,940 (D) Rs. 5,858

(E) None of these



35. What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the follow-ing number series ?

19 36 70 ? 274 546

(A) 142 (B) 138

(C) 136 (D) 140

(E) None of these



36. The difference between 60% of a number and 20% of the same numbr is 316. What is 35% of that number ?

(A) 270·5 (B) 285·5

(C) 276·5 (D) 275

(E) None of these



37. The average of 4 positive integers is 52·5. The highest integer is 76 and the lowest integer is 34. The difference between the remain-ing two integers is 4. Which of the following integers is higher of the remaining two integers ?

(A) 52

(B) 54

(C) 48

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these



38. The ratio of the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 9 : 8 respectively. The area of the plot is 3528 sq. metres. What is the perimeter of the rectangular plot ?

(A) 256 metres

(B) 119 metres

(C) 238 metres

(D) 126 metres

(E) None of these



39. What is 876 times 779 ?

(A) 68214 (B) 68824

(C) 628402 (D) 682514

(E) None of these



40. The total number of students studying in a school is 10396. The ratio of the total number of girls to the total number of boys studying in the school is 52 : 61 respectively. What is the total number of girls studying in the school ?

(A) 4874 (B) 4784

(C) 5216 (D) 5612

(E) None of these



41. The present age of Mr. Deepak is 3 times the present age of his son. Five years hence the ratio of their ages will be 34 : 13 respecti-vely. What is the present age of Mr. Deepak ?

(A) 63 years (B) 68 years

(C) 58 years (D) 60 years

(E) None of these



42. In an examination it is required to get 36% of the aggregate marks to pass. A student gets 174 marks and is declared failed by 96 marks. What is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get ?

(A) 750

(B) 650

(C) 600

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these



43. In the following number series one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number—

13 16 22 31 42 58

(A) 16 (B) 42

(C) 22 (D) 31

(E) None of these



44. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 66. What is the product of B and E ?

(A) 4352 (B) 4340

(C) 4620 (D) 4224

(E) None of these



45. Shri Verma invests Rs. 14500 for 6 years at the certain rate of simple interest. After 6 years his invested sum becomes Rs. 21460. Find out the rate of interest per annum—

(A) 4% p.a. (B) 10% p.a.

(C) 6% p.a. (D) 8% p.a.

(E) None of these



46. The cost of 4 digital cameras and 6 mobile phones is Rs. 51,365. Find out the cost of 12 digital cameras and 18 mobile phones—

(A) Rs. 1,74,500

(B) Rs. 5,13,650

(C) Rs. 1,54,095

(D) Can’t be determined

(E) None of these



47. In how many ways 7 children can be seated in the available 7 seats ?

(A) 4050 (B) 1680

(C) 840 (D) 5040

(E) None of these



48. If x + y = 11 and xy = 28, find out the value of the expression

(x)2 + (y)2.

(A) 63

(B) 56

(C) 65

(D) Can’t be determined

(E) None of these



49. In a canteen 238 kgs. of rice is required for a week. How much rice is required for 49 days ?

(A) 1715 kg (B) 1764 kg

(C) 1568 kg (D) 1617 kg

(E) None of these



50. The circumference of a circular plot is 484 metre. Find out the area of that circular plot—

(A) 15246 metre2

(B) 18634 metre2

(C) 20328 metre2

(D) 13552 metre2

(E) None of these



Answers with Explanations


1. (c) 2. (D) 3. (e) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (e) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (e) 14. (A) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (e) 20. (b) 21. (e) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (e) 29. (C) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (d) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (e) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (e) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (e) 50. (b)

AAO (Assistant Administrative Officer) LIC Exam Papers

Topic:

Quantitative Aptitude

Exam Date:

May 12, 2007

1. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, the dividend is:

(1) 4236

(2) 4306

(3) 4336

(4) 5336

2. If 1.5 x= 0.04 y, then the value of (y-x) (y+x) is:

(1) 730/77

(2) 73/77

(3) 7.3/77

(4) 703/77

3. An employee may claim Rs. 7.00 for each km when he travels by taxi and Rs. 6.00 for each km if he drives his own car. If in one week he claimed Rs. 595 for traveling km. How many kms did he travel by taxi?

(1) 55

(2) 65

(3) 62

(4) 70

4. The square root of 3 + v5 is :

(1) v3 /2 + 1/v2

(2) v3 /2 - 1/v2

(3) v5 /2 - 1/v2

(4) v(5/2) + v(1/2)

5. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 370C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 340C, if the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of Monday, then what was the temperature on Thursday?

(1) 36.50C

(2) 360C

(3) 35.50C

(4) 340C

6. A certain number of two digits is three times the sum of its digits. If 45 be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is:

(1) 72

(2) 32

(3) 27

(4) 23

7. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years. While C joining them now, the average becomes 22 years. How old (in years) is C now?

(1) 24

(2) 27

(3) 28

(4) 30

8. If 2^(2x-1) = 8^(3-x), then the value of x is:

(1) -1

(2) -2

(3) 2

(4) 3

9. A man's basic pay for a 40 hours' week is Rs. 200. Overtimes is paid at 25% above the basic rate. In a certain week, he worked overtime and his total was Rs. 300. He therefore, worked for a total of (in hours):

(1) 52

(2) 56

(3) 58

(4) 62

10. On a Rs. 10, 000 payment order, a person has choice between 3 successive discounts of 10%, 10% and 30% and 3 successive discounts of 40%, 5% and 5%. By choosing the better one he can save (in Rupees):

(1) 200

(2) 255

(3) 400

(4) 433

11. Rs. 600 are divided among A, B, C so that Rs. 40 more than 2/5 th of A's share, Rs. 20 more that 2/7 th of B's share and Rs. 10 more than 9/17 th of C's may all be equal. What is A's share (in Rupees)?

(1) 150

(2) 170

(3) 200

(4) 280

12. A, B, C started a business with their investment in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. After 4 months, A invested the same amount as before and B as well as C withdrew half of their investments. The ratio of their profits at the end of the year was:

(1) 5 : 6 : 10

(2) 6 : 5 :10

(3) 10 : 5 : 6

(4) 4 : 3 : 5

13. If 9 men working 71/2 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 20 days, then how many days will be taken by 12 men, working 6 hours a day to finish the work? It is being given that 2 men of latter type work as much as 3 men of the former type?

(1) 91/2

(2) 11

(3) 121/2

(4) 13

14. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill the cistern is:

(1) 12

(2) 14

(3) 16

(4) 18

15. A train B speeding with 120 kmph crosses another train C running in the same direction, in 2 minutes. If the lengths of the trains B and C be 100 m and 200 m respectively, what is the speed (in kmph) of the train C?

(1) 111

(2) 123

(3) 127

(4) 129

16. River is running at 2 kmph. It took a man twice as long to row up as to row down the river. The rate (in km/hr) of the man in still water is:

(1) 8

(2) 10

(3) 4

(4) 6

17. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity (in kg.) sold at 18% profit is:

(1) 560

(2) 600

(3) 400

(4) 640

18. A sum of money becomes Rs. 13, 380 after 3 years and Rs. 20, 070 after 6 years on compound interest. The sum (in Rupees) is:

(1) 8800

(2) 8890

(3) 8920

(4) 9040

19. A well with 14 m inside diameter is dug 10 m deep. Earth taken out of it, has been evenly spread all around it to a width of 21m to form an embankment. The height (in metres) of the embankment is:

(1) 1/2

(2) 2/3

(3) 3/4

(4) 3/5

20. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq metres and a perimeter of 46 metres. The length of its diagonal (in metres) is:

(1) 11

(2) 13

(3) 15

(4) 17

ANSWERS

1. (4), 2. (2), 3. (1), 4. (4), 5. (2)

6. (3), 7. (1), 8. (3), 9. (2), 10. (2)

11. (1), 12. (1), 13. (3), 14. (2), 15. (1)

16. (4), 17. (2), 18. (3), 19. (2), 20. (4)

FCI Management Trainee (General/Depot) Exam Papers

FCI selection process will be consisting of written test, group discussion (GD)and interview.
written test will comprise of 90 multiple choice question of general aptitude consisting of
Reasoning,
Data Analysis,
Computer Awareness,
General Awareness,
Management and Current Affairs for the post of ManagementTrainees (Genl./Depot/Movt.)

1. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule
by an official proclamation?
(A) Lord Hastings
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (D)

2. India is comparatively not rich in which one of the following minerals compared to the other three?
(A) Bauxite
(B) Copper
(C) Iron
(D) Manganese
Ans. (B)

3. Among the following, which one has recorded the highest population growth rate during 1991-2001?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Manipur
(C) Nagaland
(D) Sikkim
Ans. (C)

4. In which one of the following regions does the Indus river originate?
(A) Laddakh
(B) Lahaul
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
Ans. (A)

5. What is the term used to denote the temperature at which the water vapour present in the atmosphere is sufficient to saturate?
(A) Condensation point
(B) Dew point
(C) Sublimation point
(D) Saturation point
Ans. (D)

6. The earth’s reflectivity of solar radiation, termed albedo, is highest in which one of the following?
(A) Cropland
(B) Forest area
(C) Sand desert
(D) Snow area
Ans. (D)

7. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Devendranath Tagore
(C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(D) Keshab Chandra Sen
Ans. (A)

8. Who for the first time saw bacteria through a microscope made by himself?
(A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) Robert Virchow
Ans. (A)

9. Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration?
(A) Dictyosomes
(B) Endoplasmic reticula
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Mitochondria
Ans. (D)

10. To which of the following types of animals are Salamanders closely related ?
(A) Dolphins and Whales
(B) Frogs and Toads
(C) Prawns and Crabs
(D) Seals and Walruses
Ans. (B)

11. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A seed is a ripened —
(A) ovary
(B) flower
(C) gynoecium
(D) ovule
Ans. (D)

12. Historical materialism is a tenet of which one of the following political theories ?
(A) Capitalism
(B) Liberalism
(C) Fascism
(D) Marxism
Ans. (D)

13. What is ‘Look East Policy’ often in the news?
(A) Government of India’s initiative for the infrastructural development in the North Eastern States
(B) India’s search for oil and gas in its Eastern shoreline
(C) India’s collaboration with some East Asian countries in the exploration of oil and gas
(D) India’s continuing pursuit of close relations with South-East Asian countries
Ans. (D)

14. Who of the following published a famous pamphlet known as ‘Right of Mass’ and urged the people in England, America and France to fight for their liberty ?
(A) Thomas Jefferson
(B) Thomas Paine
(C) John Locke
(D) Jean Jacques Rousseau
Ans. (B)

15. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that separates the seeds from cotton three hundred times faster than by hand?
(A) Eli Whitney
(B) George Stephenson
(C) McAdam
(D) James Watt
Ans. (A)

16. Whose duty is it to recommend to the President of India on the issue of the distribution and allocation of the net proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre State fiscal relations ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Finance Commission
Ans. (D)

17. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?
(A) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Union Home Minister
Ans. (C)

18. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of “Rapid Industrialization with particular emphasis on development of basic and heavy industries”?
(A) First
(C) Third
(B) Second
(D) Fourth
Ans. (B)

19. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given rulers of ancient India?
(A) Ashoka — Kanishka — Milinda
(B) Milinda — Ashoka — Kanishka
(C) Ashoka — Milinda — Kanishka
(D) Milinda — Kanishka — Ashoka
Ans. (C)

20. Which one of the following is not a disease caused by virus?
(A) Bird-flu
(B) Chickenpox
(C) Cholera
(D) Dengue
Ans. (C)

21. In terms of the evolution of organisms, which one among the following is the most advanced?
(A) Bat
(C) Shark
(B) Pigeon
(D) Vulture
Ans. (A)

22. Which one of the following is not a genetic disorder?
(A) Colour blindness
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Hemophilia
(D) Xerophthalmia
Ans. (D)

23. Which one of the following is an enzyme?
(A) Gastrin
(B) Keratin
(C) Trypsin
(D) Vasopressin
Ans. (C)

24. In human body, which one of the following secretes hormones as well as digestive enzymes ?
(A) Oesophagus
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Large intestine
Ans. (B)

25. In the human body, which of the following store / stores extra blood for release when
shortages occur?
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Lymph nodes
Ans. (C)

26. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block kept at rest on a horizontal surface and gets embedded into it, the two together then move with a uniform velocity. Which one of the following conservation laws holds?
(A) Conservation of angular momentum
(B) Conservation of kinetic energy
(C) Conservation of linear momentum
(D) Conservation of velocity
Ans. (C)

27. Which one of the following is correct?
A negatively charged glass rod has always—
(A) less electrons than protons
(B) less electrons than neutrons
(C) less protons than electrons
(D) less neutrons than protons
Ans. (C)

28. Who among the following was sent by Lord Harding’s to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi?
(A) B. G. Tilak
(B) G. K. Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Motilal Nehru
Ans. (B)

29. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean?
(A) Falkland Current
(B) Canary Current
(C) Labrador Current
(D) Gulf Stream
Ans. (A)

30. Which one of the following States does not share boundary with Jharkhand ?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (B)

31. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow?
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Chattisgarh only
(B) Chattisgarh and Orissa only
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only
(D) Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Orissa
Ans. (C)

32. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans. (D)

33. The efforts of who of the following led to the “Age of Consent Act, 1891”?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) M. G. Ranade
(C) Surendra Nath Bannerjee
(D) Mulbari
Ans. (D)

34. What was the name of the party formed by Subhas Chandra Bose after leaving Indian
National Congress?
(A) Congress Socialist Party
(B) Forward Bloc
(C) Indian National Conference
(D) Swaraj Party
Ans. (B)

35. Among the following who was a prominent leader of Khilafat Movement?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans. (B)

36. Who was the architect of the ‘Drain Theory’ and the author of the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
Ans. (A)

37. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following?
(A) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district
(B) Demonstration of Akali Sikhs at Nabha
(C) Demonstration against the Simon Commission
(D) Dandi March
Ans. (D)

38. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide
Ans. (B)

39. Which dance form are Birju Maharaj and Gopi Krishna renowned for?
(A) Kathak
(B) Chhau
(C) Kathakali
(D) Odissi
Ans. (A)

401. Which is the official language of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep?
(A) Tamil
(B) Marathi
(C) Malayalam
(D) Konkani
Ans. (C)

41. Who is known as the ‘Father of India’s missile programme’?
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) R. Santhanam
(C) Raja Ramanna
(D) Homi Bhabha
Ans. (A)

42. The birthday of which sportsperson is celebrated as National Sports Day?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) PT. Usha
(C) Prakash Padukone
(D) Dhyan Chand
Ans. (D)

43. Who among the following holds a record of the fastest 100 test wickets taken by an Indian bowler?
(A) Erapalli Prasanna
(B) Bhagawat Chandrasekhar
(C) Bishan Singh Bedi
(D) Kapil Dev
Ans. (D)

44 In which city were the first Asian Games held?
(A) Bangkok
(B) Kuala Lumpur
(C) New Delhi
(D) Moscow
Ans. (C)

45. The First Five Year Plan covered the period—
(A) 1951-56
(B) 1952-57
(C) 1947-52
(D) 1950-55
Ans. (A)

46. The breadth of the railway broad gauge is approximately—
(A) 1.67m
(B) 1.33m
(C) 2.00m
(D) 1.83m
Ans. (A)

47. Modulation used in a GSM mobile phone is—
(A) PSK
(B) BPSK
(C) MSK
(D) GMSK
Ans. (D)

48. The light in optical fibre cable propagates due to—
(A) Refraction
(B) Diffraction
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Interference
Ans. (C)

49. When a TV receiver is switched n, the picture comes late, Why ?
(A) Video bandwidth is large
(B) Video signal takes longer to arrive
(C) Electron emission takes time
(D) All of the above.
Ans. (C)

50. Seismograph is used in the study of—
(A) Moon
(B) Earthquake
(C) Floods
(D) Tides
Ans. (B)