General Awareness
1. Who was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest ?
(A) Bachhendri Pal
(B) Phew Dorajee
(C) Onn Saang Su Kayi
(D) Yoko Ono
Ans : (A)
2. Name of S. Chandrashekhar is associated with which of the following subjects ?
(A) Cosmology
(B) Chemistry
(C) Fluid Mechanics
(D) Astrophysics
Ans : (D)
3. Who was the only Indian woman to be elected as the President of U.N. General Assembly ?
(A) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(B) V. K. Krishna Menon
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Rajeshwar Dayal
Ans : (A)
4. ‘RAF’ is the abbreviated form of which of the following ?
(A) Ready Action Force
(B) Rapid Action Force
(C) Reverse Action Force
(D) Repeat Action Force
Ans : (B)
5. Tehri dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Brahmputra
(C) Bhagirathi
(D) Yamuna
Ans : (C)
6. Who lost the AFC (Asian Football Confederation Final, 2008 to India) ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) Tajikistan
Ans : (D)
7. After the terrorist attack of 26th November, 2008 in Mumbai, who was appointed as the Home Minister of India ?
(A) Sh. Shivraj Patil
(B) Sh. Pranab Mukherjee
(C) Sh. P. Chidambaram
(D) Sh. A.K. Anthony
Ans : (C)
8. Name the winner of the Sanjay Chopra National Award for Bravery 2008
(A) Saumika Mishra
(B) Santosh Sen
(C) Amit Kumar
(D) Pappu
Ans : (A)
9. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed by our Constitution from the Constitution of—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Canada
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) Ireland
Ans : (D)
10. The three medals that IndiAns won in the Beijing Olympics were in
(A) Shooting, Boxing and Wrestling
(B) Shooting, Boxing and Archery
(C) Shooting, Wrestling and Tennis
(D) Shooting, Boxing and Hockey
Ans : (A)
11 There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Chief Justice of a High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Vice President
Ans : (C)
12. The train service—‘Thar Express’ between India and Pakistan, originates in India from—
(A) Jaisalmer
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Bikaner
(D) Barmer
Ans : (D)
13. Garba is a dance form of
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)
14. Who is named as the Flying Sikh of India ?
(A) Mohinder Singh
(B) Ajit Pal Singh
(C) Joginder Singh
(D) Milkha Singh
Ans : (D)
15. Fundamental Rights are not given to
(A) Bankrupt persons
(B) Aliens
(C) Persons suffering from incurable disease
(D) Political sufferers
Ans : (B)
16. Which of the following, according to Mahatma Gandhi, is the strongest force in the world ?
(A) Non-violence of the brave
(B) Non-violence of the weak
(C) Non-violence of the coward
(D) Non-violence of the downtrodden
Ans : (A)
17. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
(B) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
(C) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
(D) Five years
Ans : (C)
18. Consent of the people meAns consent of
(A) A few people
(B) All people
(C) Majority of the people
(D) Leader of the people
Ans : (C)
19. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution ?
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Gram Cooperative Society
(D) Nyaya Panchayat
Ans : (C)
20. Match the following—Union Territory
(A) Puducherry
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Daman and Diu
Jurisdiction (High Court)
1. Kerala
2. Bombay
3. Madras
4. Calcutta
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans : (A)
21. Which of the following is true regarding ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament ?
1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution.
2. A period of six months must lapse between the introduction of one ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another.
3. Atleast 100 persons must support such a motion before it is introduced in the House.
4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (D)
22. The toxicity of which of the following heavy metals leads to liver cirrhosis ?
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Zinc
Ans : (A)
23. Cell or tissue death within a living body is called as
(A) Neutrophilia
(B) Nephrosis
(C) Necrosis
(D) Neoplasia
Ans : (A)
24. Typhoid is caused by—
(A) Pseudomonas sp.
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Bacillus
(D) Salmonella typhi
Ans : (D)
25 Besides carbohydrates, a major source of energy in our food is constituted by
(A) Proteins
(B) Fats
(C) Minerals
(D) Vitamins
Ans : (B)
26. The process of removing calcium and magnesium from hard water is known as
(A) Sedimentation
(B) Filtration
(C) Flocculation
(D) Water softening
Ans : (D)
27. Leprosy bacillus was discovered by
(A) Koch
(B) HAnsen
(C) Fleming
(D) Harvey
Ans : (B)
28. Who, of the following, was awarded ‘Ashok Chakra’ on 26th January, 2009 ?
1. Hemant Karkare
2. M. C. Sharma
3. Gajendra Singh
4. Vijay Salaskar
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
29. The British introduced the railways in India in order to
(A) Promote heavy industries in India
(B) Facilitate British commerce and administrative control
(C) Move foodstuff in case of famine
(D) Enable IndiAns to move freely within the country
Ans : (B)
30. Which religious reformer of Western India was known as ‘Lokhitwadi’ ?
(A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
(B) R. G. Bhandarkar
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(D) B. G. Tilak
Ans : (A)
31. In which of the following states was President’s Rule imposed during the month of January, 2009 ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram
(D) Jharkhand
Ans : (D)
32. In which state was the Nalanda University located in India ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)
33. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
Persons—Events
1. Sultan Mahmud—Sack of Somnath
2. Muhammad Ghori—Conquest of Sindh
3. Alauddin Khilji—Revolt in Bengal
4. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq—Changiz Khan’s invasion
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : ()
34. Where did Babar die ?
(A) Agra
(B) Kabul
(C) Lahore
(D) Delhi
Ans : (A)
35. A situation where we have people whose level of income is not sufficient to meet the minimum consumption expenditure is considered
as
(A) Absolute Poverty
(B) Relative Poverty
(C) Urban Poverty
(D) Rural Poverty
Ans : (A)
36. India is called a mixed economy because of the existence of—
1. Public Sector
2. Private Sector
3. Joint Sector
4. Cooperative Sector
(A) 1, 4
(B) 1, 2
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 4
Ans : (B)
37. Which is the largest state of India, populationwise, according
to 2001 census ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (C)
38. Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Marshall
(C) P. A. Samuelson
(D) J. S. Mill
Ans : (C)
39. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves
(A) Upward to the right
(B) Downward to the right
(C) Horizontally
(D) Vertically
Ans : (A)
40. Who has been appointed the Governor of RBI after the retirement of Shri Y. V. Reddy ?
(A) Dr. Indra Rangarajan
(B) Dr. Dilip Sanghvi
(C) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar
(D) Shri D. Subbarao
Ans : (D)
41. In Economics the terms ‘Utility’ and ‘Usefulness’ have
(A) Same meaning
(B) Different meaning
(C) Opposite meaning
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
42. Among the following the celestial body farthest from the Earth is
(A) Saturn
(B) Uranus
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto
Ans : (D)
43. The instrument used to see the distant objects on the Earth is
(A) Terrestrial telescope
(B) Astronomical telescope
(C) Compound microscope
(D) Simple microscope
Ans : (A)
44. The fuse in our domestic electric circuit melts when there is a high rise in
(A) Inductance
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Capacitance
Ans : (B)
45. It is difficult to cook rice
(A) At the top of a mountain
(B) At the sea level
(C) Under a mine
(D) Same anywhere
Ans : (A)
46. X-rays were discovered by
(A) Becquerel
(B) Roentgen
(C) Marie Curie
(D) Van Lue
Ans : (B)
47. The National Chemical Laboratory (India) is located in
(A) Mumbai
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Pune
Ans : (D)
48. The chemicals released by one species of animals in order to attract the other members of the same species are
(A) Hormones
(B) Nucleic acids
(C) Pheromones
(D) Steroids
Ans : (C)
49. Match the source in Column B with the product of Column A.
Column A (Product)
(A) Formic acid
(B) Citric acid
(C) Tartaric acid
Column B (Source)
1. Lemon
2. Tamarind
3. Ants
(A) (B) (C)
(A) 3 2 1
(B) 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1
(D) 2 1 3
Ans : (B)
50. An emulsifier is an agent which
(A) Stabilises an emulsion
(B) Aids the flocculation of an emulsion
(C) Accelerates the dispersion
(D) Homogenises an emulsion
Ans : (A)
SSC GK Solved Model Papers 2011
General knowledge
1. Which Indian filmstars was recently conferred Honorary Doctorate by Bedfordshire University, (U.K.) ?
(A) Amitabh Bachhan
(B) Shah Rukh Khan
(C) Om Puri
(D) Amir Khan
Ans : (B)
2. Williams Sisters won the U.S. Open Women’s Doubles Title 2009 after defeating in the final—
(A) Leizal Herber and Cara Blank
(B) Kim Clijsters and Anna Kournikova
(C) Coroline Wozniacki and Dinara Safina
(D) Nathalie Deshy and Sania Mirza
Ans : (A)
3. Which one of the following is a military alliance ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) SAARC
(C) NATO
(D) NAFTA
Ans : (C)
4. The recipient of the 42nd Jnan Peeth Award is—
(A) Manohar Shastri
(B) Harish Pandya
(C) Satya Vrat Shastri
(D) K. Kamal Kumar
Ans : (C)
5. World Development Report is an annual publication of—
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNDP
(C) WTO
(D) World Bank
Ans : (D)
6. Which one of the following is correct ? Player — Sport
(A) Jeev Milkha Singh —Tennis
(B) Jhulan Goswami —Cricket
(C) Baichung Bhutia —Hockey
(D) Pankaj Advani —Badminton
Ans : (B)
7. Which one of the following industrialists was declared ‘The Business Person of the year 2008’ by the Times of India Survey ?
(A) Anil Ambani
(B) Rahul Bajaj
(C) Ratan Tata
(D) Gautam Adani
Ans : (C)
8. Naina Devi peak forms a part of—
(A) Himalayan range located in Sikkim
(B) Himalayan range located in Kumaon region
(C) Himalayan range located in Nepal
(D) Himalayan range located in Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (B)
9. The aim of the ISRO’s OCEANS AT-2 satellite is—
(A) To provide ocean scientists knowledge about mineral resources under the sea
(B) To aid fishermen in identifying fishing zones
(C) To aid weathermen to forecast cyclones and weather conditions
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
10. Who amongst the following is not the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Vijendra Singh
(B) Sushil Kumar
(C) M. C. Marykom
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (D)
11. Nilgiri, Himgiri and ‘Beas’ are—
(A) Aircraft Carrier ships
(B) Frigates
(C) Nuclear submarines
(D) Oil tankers of ONGC
Ans : (B)
12. The age of a tree can be calculated by—
(A) Number of branches
(B) Its height
(C) Girth of its trunk
(D) Number of its annual rings
Ans : (D)
13. Which one of the statements below explains the external economies of scale ?
(A) Starting a computer firm in a Techno Park to avail the expertise
(B) Expanding firms employing specialist accountants, lawyers and managers
(C) A manufacturer spreading the research and development cost over the output
(D) A major supermarket gaining bulk discounts on direct purchase
Ans : (C)
14. Which one of the following types of unemployment is common in Indian agriculture ?
(A) Frictional
(B) Structural
(C) Disguised
(D) Seasonal
Ans : (D)
15. A rolling plan refers to a plan which—
(A) Does not change its targets every year
(B) Changes its allocations every year
(C) Changes its allocations and targets every year
(D) Changes only its targets every year
Ans : (C)
16. An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is—
(A) Open market operations
(B) Credit rationing
(C) Change in reserve ratio
(D) Bank rate policy
Ans : (B)
17. Laissez-faire is a feature of—
(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mixed Economy
Ans : (C)
18. Which one of the following is not a source of the tax revenue in Indian States ?
(A) Land Revenue
(B) Motor Vehicle Tax
(C) Entertainment Tax
(D) Corporate Tax
Ans : (D)
19. CSO has changed its base year for National Income estimation. The new base year is—
(A) 1990-91
(B) 1993-94
(C) 1994-95
(D) 1995-96
Ans : (B)
20. Which is the biggest enterprise of the Government of India ?
(A) Postal and Telegraph
(B) Railways
(C) Banking
(D) Shipping
Ans : (B)
21. In which type of competition does Marginal Revenue Curve coincide with Average Revenue Curve ?
(A) Monopoly
(B) Imperfect Competition
(C) Perfect Competition
(D) Monopolistic Competition
Ans : (C)
22. According to J. A. Schumpeter, entrepreneurs are entitled to enjoy the profit for their……… activities.
(A) Innovative
(B) Risk taking
(C) Risk averting
(D) Hard work
Ans : (A)
23. Demonstration effect means—
(A) Effect of advertisement
(B) Imitating effect of consumption
(C) Effect of entertainment
(D) Effect of an experiment
Ans : (B)
24. Homogeneous product is a feature of—
(A) Imperfect market
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect market
Ans : (D)
25. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the Ideals of Welfare State ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans : (D)
26. Who said, “Parliamentary System provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the Government” ?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Shri B. N. Rao
(C) Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (A)
27. The legal advisor to the State Government is known as—
(A) Advocate-General
(B) Attorney-General
(C) Solicitor-General
(D) State Public Prosecutor
Ans : (A)
28. The maximum duration of Zero Hour in Lok Sabha is—
(A) 30 minutes
(B) One hour
(C) Two hours
(D) Unspecified
Ans : (B)
29. Which agency acts as co-ordinator between Union Government, Planning Commission and State Governments ?
(A) National Integration Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Inter-State Council
Ans : (C)
30. When will demand become a grant ?
(A) When a demand is proposed
(B) After the discussion on demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the Budget Session is closed
Ans : (C)
31. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution ?
(A) Independence
(B) Service Conditions
(C) Salary
(D) Judicial Review
Ans : (D)
32. What is the name of Judicial organ of UNO ?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Court of International Justice
(C) Judicial Forum
(D) International Court of Justice
Ans : (D)
33. The Election disputes regarding the Election of President and Vice-President can be heard by—
(A) Parliament
(B) Central Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Attorney-General of India
Ans : (C)
34. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of—
(A) The village, the block and the district levels
(B) The mandal and the district levels
(C) The village, the district and the State levels
(D) The village, the mandal, the district and the State levels
Ans : (A)
35. Which of the following has banned ‘floor crossing’ by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature ?
(A) 52nd Constitution Amendment
(B) Representation of People Act
(C) National Security Act
(D) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
Ans : (A)
36. The expression ‘Creamy Layer’ used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to—
(A) Those sections of society which pay Income-tax
(B) Those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are economically advanced
(C) Those sections of the society that are considered advanced according to Karpuri Thakur formula
(D) All sections of upper castes of the society
Ans : (B)
37. When was the Panchtantra written ?
(A) Maurya Period
(B) Kanishka Period
(C) Gupta Period
(D) Harsha Period
Ans : (C)
38. Which one among the following is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian education ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Hunter’s Commission
(C) Sadler Commission
(D) Wardha Scheme
Ans : (A)
39. The battle of Mahabharata is believed to have been fought at Kurukshetra for—
(A) 14 days
(B) 16 days
(C) 18 days
(D) 20 days
Ans : (C)
40. The Mukteswara Temple is located at—
(A) Puri
(B) Belur
(C) Konark
(D) Bhubaneswar
Ans : (D)
41. Which king of the Gupta Dynasty was called the ‘Napoleon of India’ ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(C) Sri Gupta
(D) Chandragupta-I
Ans : (A)
42. Between which two rulers was the First Battle of Panipat fought?
(A) Akbar and Bahlol Lodi
(B) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Bairam Khan and Sikandar Lodi
(D) Shah Jahan and Daulat Khan Lodi
Ans : (B)
43. Who is the author of Ain-i-Akbari ?
(A) Abul Fazal
(B) Abdus Samad
(C) Bairam Khan
(D) Raja Todarmal
Ans : (A)
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I — List-II
(A) Peshwas 1. Nagpur
(B) Gaekwads 2. Pune
(C) Bhonsles 3. Indore
(D) Holkers 4. Baroda
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (A)
45. Which reformer from Maharashtra was known as Lokhitavadi ?
(A) Pandit Ramabai
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
Ans : (D)
46. ‘Din-e-Ilahi’ of Akbar was not a success because—
(A) After Akbar, it was not patronized
(B) The Muslims did not accept other religious practices
(C) It was not suitably projected to the masses
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
47. Who was the author of the book ‘My Experiments with Truth’ ?
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans : (C)
48. Give the correct chronological order of the following events—
1. Formation of Muslim League
2. Formation of All India Untouchability League
3. Formation of All India Trade Union Congress
4. Formation of Indian National Congress
(A) 2, 4, 1, 3
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (D)
49. 80% of the coal in India comes from—
(A) Jharia and Raniganj
(B) Kantapalli and Singareni
(C) Singrauli and Korba
(D) Neyveli
Ans : (A)
50. Dry zone agriculture in India contributes nearly 40% of the total—
(A) Commercial crops
(B) Fodder crops
(C) Food crops
(D) Plantation products
Ans : (D)
1. Which Indian filmstars was recently conferred Honorary Doctorate by Bedfordshire University, (U.K.) ?
(A) Amitabh Bachhan
(B) Shah Rukh Khan
(C) Om Puri
(D) Amir Khan
Ans : (B)
2. Williams Sisters won the U.S. Open Women’s Doubles Title 2009 after defeating in the final—
(A) Leizal Herber and Cara Blank
(B) Kim Clijsters and Anna Kournikova
(C) Coroline Wozniacki and Dinara Safina
(D) Nathalie Deshy and Sania Mirza
Ans : (A)
3. Which one of the following is a military alliance ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) SAARC
(C) NATO
(D) NAFTA
Ans : (C)
4. The recipient of the 42nd Jnan Peeth Award is—
(A) Manohar Shastri
(B) Harish Pandya
(C) Satya Vrat Shastri
(D) K. Kamal Kumar
Ans : (C)
5. World Development Report is an annual publication of—
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNDP
(C) WTO
(D) World Bank
Ans : (D)
6. Which one of the following is correct ? Player — Sport
(A) Jeev Milkha Singh —Tennis
(B) Jhulan Goswami —Cricket
(C) Baichung Bhutia —Hockey
(D) Pankaj Advani —Badminton
Ans : (B)
7. Which one of the following industrialists was declared ‘The Business Person of the year 2008’ by the Times of India Survey ?
(A) Anil Ambani
(B) Rahul Bajaj
(C) Ratan Tata
(D) Gautam Adani
Ans : (C)
8. Naina Devi peak forms a part of—
(A) Himalayan range located in Sikkim
(B) Himalayan range located in Kumaon region
(C) Himalayan range located in Nepal
(D) Himalayan range located in Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (B)
9. The aim of the ISRO’s OCEANS AT-2 satellite is—
(A) To provide ocean scientists knowledge about mineral resources under the sea
(B) To aid fishermen in identifying fishing zones
(C) To aid weathermen to forecast cyclones and weather conditions
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
10. Who amongst the following is not the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ?
(A) Vijendra Singh
(B) Sushil Kumar
(C) M. C. Marykom
(D) Abhinav Bindra
Ans : (D)
11. Nilgiri, Himgiri and ‘Beas’ are—
(A) Aircraft Carrier ships
(B) Frigates
(C) Nuclear submarines
(D) Oil tankers of ONGC
Ans : (B)
12. The age of a tree can be calculated by—
(A) Number of branches
(B) Its height
(C) Girth of its trunk
(D) Number of its annual rings
Ans : (D)
13. Which one of the statements below explains the external economies of scale ?
(A) Starting a computer firm in a Techno Park to avail the expertise
(B) Expanding firms employing specialist accountants, lawyers and managers
(C) A manufacturer spreading the research and development cost over the output
(D) A major supermarket gaining bulk discounts on direct purchase
Ans : (C)
14. Which one of the following types of unemployment is common in Indian agriculture ?
(A) Frictional
(B) Structural
(C) Disguised
(D) Seasonal
Ans : (D)
15. A rolling plan refers to a plan which—
(A) Does not change its targets every year
(B) Changes its allocations every year
(C) Changes its allocations and targets every year
(D) Changes only its targets every year
Ans : (C)
16. An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is—
(A) Open market operations
(B) Credit rationing
(C) Change in reserve ratio
(D) Bank rate policy
Ans : (B)
17. Laissez-faire is a feature of—
(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mixed Economy
Ans : (C)
18. Which one of the following is not a source of the tax revenue in Indian States ?
(A) Land Revenue
(B) Motor Vehicle Tax
(C) Entertainment Tax
(D) Corporate Tax
Ans : (D)
19. CSO has changed its base year for National Income estimation. The new base year is—
(A) 1990-91
(B) 1993-94
(C) 1994-95
(D) 1995-96
Ans : (B)
20. Which is the biggest enterprise of the Government of India ?
(A) Postal and Telegraph
(B) Railways
(C) Banking
(D) Shipping
Ans : (B)
21. In which type of competition does Marginal Revenue Curve coincide with Average Revenue Curve ?
(A) Monopoly
(B) Imperfect Competition
(C) Perfect Competition
(D) Monopolistic Competition
Ans : (C)
22. According to J. A. Schumpeter, entrepreneurs are entitled to enjoy the profit for their……… activities.
(A) Innovative
(B) Risk taking
(C) Risk averting
(D) Hard work
Ans : (A)
23. Demonstration effect means—
(A) Effect of advertisement
(B) Imitating effect of consumption
(C) Effect of entertainment
(D) Effect of an experiment
Ans : (B)
24. Homogeneous product is a feature of—
(A) Imperfect market
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect market
Ans : (D)
25. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the Ideals of Welfare State ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans : (D)
26. Who said, “Parliamentary System provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the Government” ?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Shri B. N. Rao
(C) Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (A)
27. The legal advisor to the State Government is known as—
(A) Advocate-General
(B) Attorney-General
(C) Solicitor-General
(D) State Public Prosecutor
Ans : (A)
28. The maximum duration of Zero Hour in Lok Sabha is—
(A) 30 minutes
(B) One hour
(C) Two hours
(D) Unspecified
Ans : (B)
29. Which agency acts as co-ordinator between Union Government, Planning Commission and State Governments ?
(A) National Integration Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Inter-State Council
Ans : (C)
30. When will demand become a grant ?
(A) When a demand is proposed
(B) After the discussion on demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the Budget Session is closed
Ans : (C)
31. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution ?
(A) Independence
(B) Service Conditions
(C) Salary
(D) Judicial Review
Ans : (D)
32. What is the name of Judicial organ of UNO ?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Court of International Justice
(C) Judicial Forum
(D) International Court of Justice
Ans : (D)
33. The Election disputes regarding the Election of President and Vice-President can be heard by—
(A) Parliament
(B) Central Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Attorney-General of India
Ans : (C)
34. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of—
(A) The village, the block and the district levels
(B) The mandal and the district levels
(C) The village, the district and the State levels
(D) The village, the mandal, the district and the State levels
Ans : (A)
35. Which of the following has banned ‘floor crossing’ by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature ?
(A) 52nd Constitution Amendment
(B) Representation of People Act
(C) National Security Act
(D) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
Ans : (A)
36. The expression ‘Creamy Layer’ used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to—
(A) Those sections of society which pay Income-tax
(B) Those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are economically advanced
(C) Those sections of the society that are considered advanced according to Karpuri Thakur formula
(D) All sections of upper castes of the society
Ans : (B)
37. When was the Panchtantra written ?
(A) Maurya Period
(B) Kanishka Period
(C) Gupta Period
(D) Harsha Period
Ans : (C)
38. Which one among the following is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian education ?
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Hunter’s Commission
(C) Sadler Commission
(D) Wardha Scheme
Ans : (A)
39. The battle of Mahabharata is believed to have been fought at Kurukshetra for—
(A) 14 days
(B) 16 days
(C) 18 days
(D) 20 days
Ans : (C)
40. The Mukteswara Temple is located at—
(A) Puri
(B) Belur
(C) Konark
(D) Bhubaneswar
Ans : (D)
41. Which king of the Gupta Dynasty was called the ‘Napoleon of India’ ?
(A) Samudragupta
(B) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(C) Sri Gupta
(D) Chandragupta-I
Ans : (A)
42. Between which two rulers was the First Battle of Panipat fought?
(A) Akbar and Bahlol Lodi
(B) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Bairam Khan and Sikandar Lodi
(D) Shah Jahan and Daulat Khan Lodi
Ans : (B)
43. Who is the author of Ain-i-Akbari ?
(A) Abul Fazal
(B) Abdus Samad
(C) Bairam Khan
(D) Raja Todarmal
Ans : (A)
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists—
List-I — List-II
(A) Peshwas 1. Nagpur
(B) Gaekwads 2. Pune
(C) Bhonsles 3. Indore
(D) Holkers 4. Baroda
Codes :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (A)
45. Which reformer from Maharashtra was known as Lokhitavadi ?
(A) Pandit Ramabai
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
Ans : (D)
46. ‘Din-e-Ilahi’ of Akbar was not a success because—
(A) After Akbar, it was not patronized
(B) The Muslims did not accept other religious practices
(C) It was not suitably projected to the masses
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
47. Who was the author of the book ‘My Experiments with Truth’ ?
(A) Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans : (C)
48. Give the correct chronological order of the following events—
1. Formation of Muslim League
2. Formation of All India Untouchability League
3. Formation of All India Trade Union Congress
4. Formation of Indian National Congress
(A) 2, 4, 1, 3
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2
(D) 4, 1, 3, 2
Ans : (D)
49. 80% of the coal in India comes from—
(A) Jharia and Raniganj
(B) Kantapalli and Singareni
(C) Singrauli and Korba
(D) Neyveli
Ans : (A)
50. Dry zone agriculture in India contributes nearly 40% of the total—
(A) Commercial crops
(B) Fodder crops
(C) Food crops
(D) Plantation products
Ans : (D)
Uttarakhand PSC (J) (Pre.) Solved Question Papers 2011
General Awareness
1. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
(Ans) : (D)
2. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with—
(A) Backward Classes Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Finance Commission
(Ans) : (A)
3. In which year ‘Advocate’s Welfare Fund Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India ?
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2008
(Ans) : (B)
4. In which one of the following cases it has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs within municipal area of Rishikesh is not violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution ?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of Uttarakhand
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
(D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
(Ans) : (C)
5. ‘Right to Information’ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(B) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(Ans) : (B)
6. In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly one member is nominated from—
(A) Christian Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Anglo-Indian Community
(D) Parsi Community
(Ans) : (C)
7. A Supreme Court’s Judge retires at an age of—
(A) 58 years
(B) 70 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years
(Ans) : (D)
8. Who is the head of the ‘State-Executive’ ?
(A) The State Legislature Assembly
(B) The State Cabinet
(C) The Chief Minister
(D) The Governor
(Ans) : (D)
9. Case of I. R. Coelho V. State of Tamil Nadu is related with—
(A) Judicial review of Article 356 of the Constitution
(B) Judicial review of Article 226 of the Constitution
(C) Judicial review of Ninth Schedule Laws
(D) Judicial review of action taken by Speaker under Article 105 of the Constitution
(Ans) : (C)
10. Humanisation and decrimanisation of attempts to suicide was recommended by—
(A) 210th Report of Law Commission
(B) 212th Report of Law Commission
(C) 216th Report of Law Commission
(D) 215th Report of Law Commission
(Ans) : (A)
11. Jaya Bachchan V. Union of India, A.I.R. 2006 S.C. 2119 is related with—
(A) Article 102(1)(A) of the Constitution
(B) Article 109 of the Constitution
(C) Article 190 of the Constitution
(D) Article 226 of the Constitution
(Ans) : (A)
12. Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by—
(A) President of India
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)
13. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission ?
(A) Justice A. K. Majumdar
(B) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice R. C. Lahoti
(Ans) : (B)
14. ‘www’ on the internet stands for—
(A) Words Words Words
(B) Wide Word Words
(C) World Wide Web
(D) When Where Why
(Ans) : (C)
15. To which of the following companies, the Delhi High Court has ordered to remove its ‘Logo’ ?
(A) Pepsico India
(B) TISCO
(C) Reliance Petrochemicals
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)
16. The Article of the Indian Constitution which automatically become suspended on Proclamation of Emergency is—
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 32
(Ans) : (B)
17. Which State in India implemented the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ first ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(Ans) : (A)
18. In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Central Cabinet
(D) Parliament
(Ans) : (B)
19. On whose recommendation the financial distribution between the ‘Union’ and ‘States’ takes place ?
(A) The Finance Commission
(B) The National Development Council
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Inter-State Council
(Ans) : (A)
20. Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)
21. The Court which has jurisdiction over election disputes under Section 80 of the Representation of People Act, 1951 is—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Election Tribunal
(Ans) : (B)
22. Who can remove Election Commissioner from his office ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister in the same way as the Judge of the High Court can be removed
(D) President of India on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner
(Ans) : (D)
23. In which of the following cases constitutionality of the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act, 2006 was challenged ?
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India
(B) Ashok Kumar Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)
24. How many times the emergency has been proclaimed in India on the ground of internal disturbance ?
(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Never
(Ans) : (A)
25. In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India ?
(A) 1962
(B) 1965
(C) 1975
(D) Never
(Ans) : (D)
26. Who appoints the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission in India ?
(A) The President of India
(B) The President of India in consultation with the Governor of the State
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission in consultation with the Governor
(Ans) : (C)
27. By which Amendment of the Indian Constitution Sikkim was included as full-fledged State of the Indian Territory ?
(A) Thirty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(B) Thirty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment
(C) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment
(D) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(Ans) : (B)
28. Under hich Article of the Constitution of India, Parliament may admit a new State in the Indian Union ?
(A) In Article 1
(B) In Article 2
(C) In Article 3
(D) In Article 4
(Ans) : (B)
29. Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State policy under the Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(B) Right to equal pay for equal work
(C) Promotion of international peace and security
(D) Free and compulsory educationfor children upto fourteen years of age
(Ans) : (D)
30. The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San- Francisco on—
(A) June 26, 1945
(B) August 15, 1943
(C) January 26, 1946
(D) December 30, 1941
(Ans) : (A)
31. Where the head office of the United Nations is situated ?
(A) Washington
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) The Hague
(Ans) : (C)
32. How many members are in the Security Council ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 15
(Ans) : (D)
33. Which one of the following Article of United Nations Charter is related to the procedure of voting ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 10
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)
34. Which one of the following is not one of the principal organ of United Nations ?
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) International Labour Organization
(D) International Court of Justice
(Ans) : (C)
35. Two official languages of the United Nations are—
(A) English and Hindi
(B) English and German
(C) English and Urdu
(D) English and French
(Ans) : (D)
36. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India have been taken from which one of the following ?
(A) The Constitution of Ireland
(B) The Constitution of United States of America
(C) The Constitution of Australia
(D) The Constitution of Canada
(Ans) : (A)
37 . P’s passport was cancelled by the authority without giving him any reasonable opportunity of being heard which was mandatory. In such case—
(A) A writ of mandamus can be issued
(B) A writ of mandamus cannot be issued as the authority has no obligation to act fairly
(C) Since cancellation of passport is always done in interest of security of India, no one can challenge the cancellation
(D) A writ of prohibition can be issued
(Ans) : (A)
38 . The maximum period of continuation of emergency under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is—
(A) 3 years
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years
(Ans) : (A)
39. Which one of the following Schedule was added in the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment ?
(A) Schedule XII
(B) Schedule VI
(C) Schedule XI
(D) Schedule IX
(Ans) : (C)
40. The procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in—
(A) Article 124 (4)
(B) Article 124 (5)
(C) Article 125
(D) Article 126
(Ans) : (A)
41. Participation of workers in management of industries is provided under Indian Constitution—
(A) In Article 44 A
(B) In Article 48 A
(C) In Article 43 A
(D) In Article 45
(Ans) : (C)
42. Article 21-A was added in the Constitution by—
(A) 86th Constitutional Amendment
(B) 88th Constitutional Amendment
(C) 89th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 90th Constitutional Amendment
(Ans) : (A)
43. Socialist and secular words were added in the Preamble of Indian Constitution by—
(A) 44th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 45th Amendment
(D) 48th Amendment
(Ans) : (B)
44. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution is not related to the environmental protection ?
(A) Article 48 A
(B) Article 51 A(i)
(C) Article 51 A(g)
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(Ans) : (B)
45. In International Court of Justice, there are—
(A) President and 15 other members
(B) President, Vice-President and 15 other members
(C) President, Vice-President and 14 other members
(D) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
(Ans) : (D)
46. International Human Rights Day is celebrated on—
(A) 26th January
(B) 10th December
(C) 14th July
(D) 26th November
(Ans) : (B)
47. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is at—
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) The Hague
(D) Paris
(Ans) : (C)
48. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between—
(A) The Prime Minister and The President
(B) Legislature and Executive
(C) Executive and Judiciary
(D) Centre and States
(Ans) : (D)
49. Under which Article of the Constitution the Inter-State Council is constituted ?
(A) Article 254
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 263
(D) Article 267
(Ans) : (C)
50. By which Amendment of the Constitution the Service Tribunals were established ?
(A) 39th Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
(Ans) : (D)
PART–II Law
51. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property by—
(A) Will
(B) Gift
(C) Sale
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)
52. Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Presumption of fact
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(Ans) : (C)
53 . Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Per capita rule
(B) Per stirpes
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule
(D) Rule of exclusion
(Ans) : (A)
54. A decree may be executed by—
(A) Tehsildar
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
(Ans) : (D)
55. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of ‘Res Judicata’ is based ?
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(C) Respondent superior
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
(Ans) : (D)
56 . Right to lodge a ‘caveat’ has been provided under—
(A) Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) Section 148-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) Section 148-B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(D) Section 147 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(Ans) : (B)
57. Arrest of a person in execution of a decree has been provided—
(A) Under Section 53 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Under Section 54 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Under Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Under Section 55 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(Ans) : (D)
58. Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court can allow to alter or amend the proceedings to—
(A) Either party
(B) To plaintiff only
(C) To defendant only
(D) To only one defendant, if there are more than one defendant
(Ans) : (A)
59. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure defines the ‘Mesne Profit’ ?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(14)
(C) Section 2(6)
(D) Section 2(12)
(Ans) : (D)
60. Order 42 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with—
(A) Appeal to Supreme Court
(B) Appeal by indigent person
(C) Appeal against orders
(D) Appeal from appellate decrees
(Ans) : (D)
61. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit—
(A) For partition
(B) For partnership
(C) For possession and mesne profit
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (D)
62. Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, every suit shall be instituted in—
(A) District Court
(B) The court of lower grade
(C) The court of higher grade
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (B)
63. Pleading has been defined in—
(A) Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(Ans) : (A)
64. Which Provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest ?
(A) Order 1, Rule 1
(B) Order 2, Rule 2
(C) Order 1, Rule 8
(D) Order 1, Rule 9
(Ans) : (C)
65. Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate
(C) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
(D) 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate
(Ans) : (D)
66. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with ‘Revision’ ?
(A) Section 110
(B) Order VI, Rule 13
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 120
(Ans) : (C)
67. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides a protection to the members of Armed Forces from arrest ?
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 45
(C) Section 46
(D) Section 50
(Ans) : (B)
68. In a summary trial the maximum period of imprisonment is—
(A) Not exceeding three months
(B) Not exceeding six months
(C) Not exceeding one year
(D) Not exceeding two years
(Ans) : (A)
69. Which of the following are liable under Section 125(1)(D) of the Code of Criminal Procedure for payment of maintenance to their parents, who are unable to maintain themselves ?
(A) Sons only
(B) Daughters only
(C) Sons and daughters both
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)
70. Section 2(C) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines—
(A) Bailable offence
(B) Non-bailable offence
(C) Cognizable offence
(D) Non-cognizable offence
(Ans) : (C)
71. Who can tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate only
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate only
(C) Magistrate of the First Class only
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (D)
72. The procedure of trials held before the Court of Sessions is provided in the Code of Criminal Procedure under—
(A) Sections 204 to 210
(B) Sections 220 to 224
(C) Sections 225 to 237
(D) Sections 238 to 245
(Ans) : (C)
73. On being submitted the sentence of death by Court of Sessions, the High Court may—
(A) Confirm the sentence
(B) Annul the conviction
(C) May pass any other sentence warranted by law
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (D)
74. Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal Procedure defines the term—
(A) Investigation
(B) Charge
(C) Inquiry
(D) Offence
(Ans) : (A)
75. Which ‘Section’ of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for prosecution for offences against marriage ?
(A) Section 196
(B) Section 197
(C) Section 198
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)
76. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that “no statement made by any person to a police officer if reduced to writing, be signed by the person making it” ?
(A) Section 161
(B) Section 162
(C) Section 163
(D) Section 164
(Ans) : (B)
77. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment—
(A) Not exceeding seven years
(B) Exceeding seven years
(C) For life
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)
78 . Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for anticipatory bail ?
(A) Section 436
(B) Section 438
(C) Section 439
(D) Section 437
(Ans) : (B)
79. In which of the following cases some important principles regarding the defence of unsoundness of mind were propounded ?
(A) Mc’Naughten Case
(B) R. V. Prince
(C) R. V. Dudley and Stephen
(D) Reg V. Govinda
(Ans) : (A)
80. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘affray’ ?
(A) Section 159
(B) Section 160
(C) Section 161
(D) Section 148
(Ans) : (A)
81. ‘A’ attempts to pick the pocket of ‘Z’ by thrusting his hand into ‘Z’s’ pocket. ‘A’ fails in his attempt as ‘Z’ had nothing in his pocket. What offence ‘A’ has committed ?
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to commit theft
(C) Mischief
(D) No offence
(Ans) : (B)
82. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code relates to vicarious liability ?
(A) Section 120A
(B) Section 121
(C) Section 154
(D) Section 159
(Ans) : (C)
83. Which one of the following cases is a case relating to Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) K. M. Nanavati Vs. State of Maharashtra
(B) Niharendu Dutta Vs. King Emperor
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. King Emperor
(D) Kedar Nath Vs. State of West Bengal
(Ans) : (C)
84. Which one of the following Provisions of the Indian Penal Code defiens ‘Unlawful Assembly’ ?
(A) Section 141
(B) Section 142
(C) Section 146
(D) Section 149
(Ans) : (A)
85. The maxim ‘Ignorantia facit excusat’ relates to—
(A) Section 75 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)
86. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code says, “nothing is an offence which is done by accident” ?
(A) Section 79 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 78 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 80 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)
87. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code has been declared unconstitutional as violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Section 301
(B) Section 303
(C) Section 306
(D) Section 314
(Ans) : (B)
88. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for abetment to commit suicide ?
(A) Section 306
(B) Section 307
(C) Section 308
(D) Section 309
(Ans) : (A)
89. Which one of the following cases is not correctly matched ?
(A) Mc’Naughten’s case—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(B) D.P.P. V. Beard—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(C) Basudeo V. State—Section 86 of I.P.C.
(D) Bhawoo Jiwaji V. Mooljee Dayal —Section 79 of I.P.C.
(Ans) : (B)
90. How many kinds of hurts are included under grevious hurt under Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(Ans) : (D)
91. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates with punishment for cheating ?
(A) Section 415
(B) Section 417
(C) Section 416
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)
92. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code makes water pollution punishable ?
(A) Section 277
(B) Section 278
(C) Section 279
(D) Section 280
(Ans) : (A)
93. In which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, preparation of the offence is punishable ?
(A) Murder
(B) Dowry death
(C) Waging war against Government of India
(D) Theft
(Ans) : (C)
94. Adultery is an offence committed—
(A) With the consent of a married woman
(B) With the consent of a woman
(C) Without the consent of a woman but with the consent of her husband
(D) With the consent of a minor girl
(Ans) : (A)
95. How many exceptions have been provided for the offence of defamation under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 9
(Ans) : (B)
96. The case of S. Varadrajan Vs. State related to—
(A) Section 366-A of I.P.C.
(B) Section 364-A of I.P.C.
(C) Section 363 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)
97. Which one of the following cases relates to right of private defence ?
(A) Jaidev Vs. State
(B) Ram Rattan Vs. State
(C) Guljar Singh Vs. State
(D) Rajesh Kumar Vs. Dharamveer
(Ans) : (A)
98. ‘A’ enters ‘Z’ house through a window. Here ‘A’ commits—
(A) Trespass
(B) House trespass
(C) House breaking
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (C)
99. Which one of the following cases is not related to Mens rea ?
(A) R. Vs. Prince
(B) Queen Vs. Tolson
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(D) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
(Ans) : (D)
100. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with those conditions, when consent is said to be, not free consent ?
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 90
(C) Section 92
(D) Section 89
(Ans) : (B)
1. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 22
(Ans) : (D)
2. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with—
(A) Backward Classes Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Finance Commission
(Ans) : (A)
3. In which year ‘Advocate’s Welfare Fund Act’ was enacted by Parliament of India ?
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2008
(Ans) : (B)
4. In which one of the following cases it has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs within municipal area of Rishikesh is not violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution ?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of Uttarakhand
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
(D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
(Ans) : (C)
5. ‘Right to Information’ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(B) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(Ans) : (B)
6. In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly one member is nominated from—
(A) Christian Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Anglo-Indian Community
(D) Parsi Community
(Ans) : (C)
7. A Supreme Court’s Judge retires at an age of—
(A) 58 years
(B) 70 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 65 years
(Ans) : (D)
8. Who is the head of the ‘State-Executive’ ?
(A) The State Legislature Assembly
(B) The State Cabinet
(C) The Chief Minister
(D) The Governor
(Ans) : (D)
9. Case of I. R. Coelho V. State of Tamil Nadu is related with—
(A) Judicial review of Article 356 of the Constitution
(B) Judicial review of Article 226 of the Constitution
(C) Judicial review of Ninth Schedule Laws
(D) Judicial review of action taken by Speaker under Article 105 of the Constitution
(Ans) : (C)
10. Humanisation and decrimanisation of attempts to suicide was recommended by—
(A) 210th Report of Law Commission
(B) 212th Report of Law Commission
(C) 216th Report of Law Commission
(D) 215th Report of Law Commission
(Ans) : (A)
11. Jaya Bachchan V. Union of India, A.I.R. 2006 S.C. 2119 is related with—
(A) Article 102(1)(A) of the Constitution
(B) Article 109 of the Constitution
(C) Article 190 of the Constitution
(D) Article 226 of the Constitution
(Ans) : (A)
12. Joint Meeting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by—
(A) President of India
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)
13. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission ?
(A) Justice A. K. Majumdar
(B) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice R. C. Lahoti
(Ans) : (B)
14. ‘www’ on the internet stands for—
(A) Words Words Words
(B) Wide Word Words
(C) World Wide Web
(D) When Where Why
(Ans) : (C)
15. To which of the following companies, the Delhi High Court has ordered to remove its ‘Logo’ ?
(A) Pepsico India
(B) TISCO
(C) Reliance Petrochemicals
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)
16. The Article of the Indian Constitution which automatically become suspended on Proclamation of Emergency is—
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 32
(Ans) : (B)
17. Which State in India implemented the ‘Panchayati Raj System’ first ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(Ans) : (A)
18. In India, which institution holds ultimate authority to accept ‘Five Year Plans ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Central Cabinet
(D) Parliament
(Ans) : (B)
19. On whose recommendation the financial distribution between the ‘Union’ and ‘States’ takes place ?
(A) The Finance Commission
(B) The National Development Council
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Inter-State Council
(Ans) : (A)
20. Who is to certify that any bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)
21. The Court which has jurisdiction over election disputes under Section 80 of the Representation of People Act, 1951 is—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Election Tribunal
(Ans) : (B)
22. Who can remove Election Commissioner from his office ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister in the same way as the Judge of the High Court can be removed
(D) President of India on the recommendation of Chief Election Commissioner
(Ans) : (D)
23. In which of the following cases constitutionality of the Central Educational Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act, 2006 was challenged ?
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India
(B) Ashok Kumar Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)
24. How many times the emergency has been proclaimed in India on the ground of internal disturbance ?
(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Never
(Ans) : (A)
25. In which year financial emergency was proclaimed under Article 360 in India ?
(A) 1962
(B) 1965
(C) 1975
(D) Never
(Ans) : (D)
26. Who appoints the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission in India ?
(A) The President of India
(B) The President of India in consultation with the Governor of the State
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission in consultation with the Governor
(Ans) : (C)
27. By which Amendment of the Indian Constitution Sikkim was included as full-fledged State of the Indian Territory ?
(A) Thirty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(B) Thirty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment
(C) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment
(D) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(Ans) : (B)
28. Under hich Article of the Constitution of India, Parliament may admit a new State in the Indian Union ?
(A) In Article 1
(B) In Article 2
(C) In Article 3
(D) In Article 4
(Ans) : (B)
29. Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State policy under the Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(B) Right to equal pay for equal work
(C) Promotion of international peace and security
(D) Free and compulsory educationfor children upto fourteen years of age
(Ans) : (D)
30. The Charter of the United Nations was signed at San- Francisco on—
(A) June 26, 1945
(B) August 15, 1943
(C) January 26, 1946
(D) December 30, 1941
(Ans) : (A)
31. Where the head office of the United Nations is situated ?
(A) Washington
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) The Hague
(Ans) : (C)
32. How many members are in the Security Council ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 15
(Ans) : (D)
33. Which one of the following Article of United Nations Charter is related to the procedure of voting ?
(A) Article 16
(B) Article 18
(C) Article 10
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)
34. Which one of the following is not one of the principal organ of United Nations ?
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) International Labour Organization
(D) International Court of Justice
(Ans) : (C)
35. Two official languages of the United Nations are—
(A) English and Hindi
(B) English and German
(C) English and Urdu
(D) English and French
(Ans) : (D)
36. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India have been taken from which one of the following ?
(A) The Constitution of Ireland
(B) The Constitution of United States of America
(C) The Constitution of Australia
(D) The Constitution of Canada
(Ans) : (A)
37 . P’s passport was cancelled by the authority without giving him any reasonable opportunity of being heard which was mandatory. In such case—
(A) A writ of mandamus can be issued
(B) A writ of mandamus cannot be issued as the authority has no obligation to act fairly
(C) Since cancellation of passport is always done in interest of security of India, no one can challenge the cancellation
(D) A writ of prohibition can be issued
(Ans) : (A)
38 . The maximum period of continuation of emergency under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is—
(A) 3 years
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year
(D) 2 years
(Ans) : (A)
39. Which one of the following Schedule was added in the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment ?
(A) Schedule XII
(B) Schedule VI
(C) Schedule XI
(D) Schedule IX
(Ans) : (C)
40. The procedure for the removal of Supreme Court Judge is given in—
(A) Article 124 (4)
(B) Article 124 (5)
(C) Article 125
(D) Article 126
(Ans) : (A)
41. Participation of workers in management of industries is provided under Indian Constitution—
(A) In Article 44 A
(B) In Article 48 A
(C) In Article 43 A
(D) In Article 45
(Ans) : (C)
42. Article 21-A was added in the Constitution by—
(A) 86th Constitutional Amendment
(B) 88th Constitutional Amendment
(C) 89th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 90th Constitutional Amendment
(Ans) : (A)
43. Socialist and secular words were added in the Preamble of Indian Constitution by—
(A) 44th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 45th Amendment
(D) 48th Amendment
(Ans) : (B)
44. Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution is not related to the environmental protection ?
(A) Article 48 A
(B) Article 51 A(i)
(C) Article 51 A(g)
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(Ans) : (B)
45. In International Court of Justice, there are—
(A) President and 15 other members
(B) President, Vice-President and 15 other members
(C) President, Vice-President and 14 other members
(D) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
(Ans) : (D)
46. International Human Rights Day is celebrated on—
(A) 26th January
(B) 10th December
(C) 14th July
(D) 26th November
(Ans) : (B)
47. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is at—
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) The Hague
(D) Paris
(Ans) : (C)
48. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of relations between—
(A) The Prime Minister and The President
(B) Legislature and Executive
(C) Executive and Judiciary
(D) Centre and States
(Ans) : (D)
49. Under which Article of the Constitution the Inter-State Council is constituted ?
(A) Article 254
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 263
(D) Article 267
(Ans) : (C)
50. By which Amendment of the Constitution the Service Tribunals were established ?
(A) 39th Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 40th Amendment
(D) 42nd Amendment
(Ans) : (D)
PART–II Law
51. Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property by—
(A) Will
(B) Gift
(C) Sale
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)
52. Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Presumption of fact
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(Ans) : (C)
53 . Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is a—
(A) Per capita rule
(B) Per stirpes
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule
(D) Rule of exclusion
(Ans) : (A)
54. A decree may be executed by—
(A) Tehsildar
(B) Collector
(C) District Judge
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which it is sent
(Ans) : (D)
55. On which of the following maxim the doctrine of ‘Res Judicata’ is based ?
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(C) Respondent superior
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
(Ans) : (D)
56 . Right to lodge a ‘caveat’ has been provided under—
(A) Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) Section 148-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) Section 148-B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(D) Section 147 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(Ans) : (B)
57. Arrest of a person in execution of a decree has been provided—
(A) Under Section 53 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Under Section 54 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Under Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Under Section 55 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(Ans) : (D)
58. Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court can allow to alter or amend the proceedings to—
(A) Either party
(B) To plaintiff only
(C) To defendant only
(D) To only one defendant, if there are more than one defendant
(Ans) : (A)
59. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure defines the ‘Mesne Profit’ ?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(14)
(C) Section 2(6)
(D) Section 2(12)
(Ans) : (D)
60. Order 42 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with—
(A) Appeal to Supreme Court
(B) Appeal by indigent person
(C) Appeal against orders
(D) Appeal from appellate decrees
(Ans) : (D)
61. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit—
(A) For partition
(B) For partnership
(C) For possession and mesne profit
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (D)
62. Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, every suit shall be instituted in—
(A) District Court
(B) The court of lower grade
(C) The court of higher grade
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (B)
63. Pleading has been defined in—
(A) Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(Ans) : (A)
64. Which Provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that one person may sue or defend on behalf of all in same interest ?
(A) Order 1, Rule 1
(B) Order 2, Rule 2
(C) Order 1, Rule 8
(D) Order 1, Rule 9
(Ans) : (C)
65. Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate
(C) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
(D) 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate
(Ans) : (D)
66. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with ‘Revision’ ?
(A) Section 110
(B) Order VI, Rule 13
(C) Section 115
(D) Section 120
(Ans) : (C)
67. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides a protection to the members of Armed Forces from arrest ?
(A) Section 41
(B) Section 45
(C) Section 46
(D) Section 50
(Ans) : (B)
68. In a summary trial the maximum period of imprisonment is—
(A) Not exceeding three months
(B) Not exceeding six months
(C) Not exceeding one year
(D) Not exceeding two years
(Ans) : (A)
69. Which of the following are liable under Section 125(1)(D) of the Code of Criminal Procedure for payment of maintenance to their parents, who are unable to maintain themselves ?
(A) Sons only
(B) Daughters only
(C) Sons and daughters both
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)
70. Section 2(C) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines—
(A) Bailable offence
(B) Non-bailable offence
(C) Cognizable offence
(D) Non-cognizable offence
(Ans) : (C)
71. Who can tender pardon to accomplice under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate only
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate only
(C) Magistrate of the First Class only
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (D)
72. The procedure of trials held before the Court of Sessions is provided in the Code of Criminal Procedure under—
(A) Sections 204 to 210
(B) Sections 220 to 224
(C) Sections 225 to 237
(D) Sections 238 to 245
(Ans) : (C)
73. On being submitted the sentence of death by Court of Sessions, the High Court may—
(A) Confirm the sentence
(B) Annul the conviction
(C) May pass any other sentence warranted by law
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (D)
74. Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal Procedure defines the term—
(A) Investigation
(B) Charge
(C) Inquiry
(D) Offence
(Ans) : (A)
75. Which ‘Section’ of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for prosecution for offences against marriage ?
(A) Section 196
(B) Section 197
(C) Section 198
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)
76. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides that “no statement made by any person to a police officer if reduced to writing, be signed by the person making it” ?
(A) Section 161
(B) Section 162
(C) Section 163
(D) Section 164
(Ans) : (B)
77. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment—
(A) Not exceeding seven years
(B) Exceeding seven years
(C) For life
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (A)
78 . Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for anticipatory bail ?
(A) Section 436
(B) Section 438
(C) Section 439
(D) Section 437
(Ans) : (B)
79. In which of the following cases some important principles regarding the defence of unsoundness of mind were propounded ?
(A) Mc’Naughten Case
(B) R. V. Prince
(C) R. V. Dudley and Stephen
(D) Reg V. Govinda
(Ans) : (A)
80. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code defines ‘affray’ ?
(A) Section 159
(B) Section 160
(C) Section 161
(D) Section 148
(Ans) : (A)
81. ‘A’ attempts to pick the pocket of ‘Z’ by thrusting his hand into ‘Z’s’ pocket. ‘A’ fails in his attempt as ‘Z’ had nothing in his pocket. What offence ‘A’ has committed ?
(A) Theft
(B) Attempt to commit theft
(C) Mischief
(D) No offence
(Ans) : (B)
82. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code relates to vicarious liability ?
(A) Section 120A
(B) Section 121
(C) Section 154
(D) Section 159
(Ans) : (C)
83. Which one of the following cases is a case relating to Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) K. M. Nanavati Vs. State of Maharashtra
(B) Niharendu Dutta Vs. King Emperor
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. King Emperor
(D) Kedar Nath Vs. State of West Bengal
(Ans) : (C)
84. Which one of the following Provisions of the Indian Penal Code defiens ‘Unlawful Assembly’ ?
(A) Section 141
(B) Section 142
(C) Section 146
(D) Section 149
(Ans) : (A)
85. The maxim ‘Ignorantia facit excusat’ relates to—
(A) Section 75 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)
86. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code says, “nothing is an offence which is done by accident” ?
(A) Section 79 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 78 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 80 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)
87. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code has been declared unconstitutional as violative of Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Section 301
(B) Section 303
(C) Section 306
(D) Section 314
(Ans) : (B)
88. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for abetment to commit suicide ?
(A) Section 306
(B) Section 307
(C) Section 308
(D) Section 309
(Ans) : (A)
89. Which one of the following cases is not correctly matched ?
(A) Mc’Naughten’s case—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(B) D.P.P. V. Beard—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(C) Basudeo V. State—Section 86 of I.P.C.
(D) Bhawoo Jiwaji V. Mooljee Dayal —Section 79 of I.P.C.
(Ans) : (B)
90. How many kinds of hurts are included under grevious hurt under Section 320 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(Ans) : (D)
91. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code relates with punishment for cheating ?
(A) Section 415
(B) Section 417
(C) Section 416
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (B)
92. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code makes water pollution punishable ?
(A) Section 277
(B) Section 278
(C) Section 279
(D) Section 280
(Ans) : (A)
93. In which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, preparation of the offence is punishable ?
(A) Murder
(B) Dowry death
(C) Waging war against Government of India
(D) Theft
(Ans) : (C)
94. Adultery is an offence committed—
(A) With the consent of a married woman
(B) With the consent of a woman
(C) Without the consent of a woman but with the consent of her husband
(D) With the consent of a minor girl
(Ans) : (A)
95. How many exceptions have been provided for the offence of defamation under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 9
(Ans) : (B)
96. The case of S. Varadrajan Vs. State related to—
(A) Section 366-A of I.P.C.
(B) Section 364-A of I.P.C.
(C) Section 363 of I.P.C.
(D) None of the above
(Ans) : (C)
97. Which one of the following cases relates to right of private defence ?
(A) Jaidev Vs. State
(B) Ram Rattan Vs. State
(C) Guljar Singh Vs. State
(D) Rajesh Kumar Vs. Dharamveer
(Ans) : (A)
98. ‘A’ enters ‘Z’ house through a window. Here ‘A’ commits—
(A) Trespass
(B) House trespass
(C) House breaking
(D) All of the above
(Ans) : (C)
99. Which one of the following cases is not related to Mens rea ?
(A) R. Vs. Prince
(B) Queen Vs. Tolson
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(D) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
(Ans) : (D)
100. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with those conditions, when consent is said to be, not free consent ?
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 90
(C) Section 92
(D) Section 89
(Ans) : (B)
Civil Services Prelims 2011 Exam Paper – I held on 12th June 2011.
CSAT 2011 Paper – I consists of 100 questions based on General Studies. (Total Marks: 200)
IAS Prelims 2011 General Studies Question Paper & Answers.
Civil Services Prelims Paper – II key for All Booklet Codes – A B C D:
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IAS Prelims 2011 General Studies Question Paper & Answers.
IAS Prelims 2011 Aptitude & English Question Paper & Answers
All information taken from various sites
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LDC 2011 - THRISSUR DISTRICT
LDC 2011 - PALAKKAD DISTRICT
LDC 2011 - KOZHIKKODE DISTRICT
LDC 2011 -WAYANAD DISTRICT
LDC 2011 -KANNUR DISTRICT
LDC 2011 - ALAPPUZHA DISTRICT
LDC 2011 - PATHANAMTHITTA DISTRICT
LDC 2011 - KOTTAYAM DISTRICT
LDC 2011 - IDUKKI DISTRICT
LDC 2011 - ERNAKULAM DISTRICT
LDC 2011 - THRISSUR DISTRICT
LDC 2011 - PALAKKAD DISTRICT
LDC 2011 - KOZHIKKODE DISTRICT
LDC 2011 -WAYANAD DISTRICT
LDC 2011 -KANNUR DISTRICT
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