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Social Science : Geography 02

1. Pressure conditions can be shown on a map by:
A. Isotherms B. Isobars C. Isohyets D. Isohalines
2. .......... receives the highest rainfall in the world.
A. Mawsynram in India B. Johannesberg in Africa
C. Brasilia in Brazil D. Salvador in South America
3. ......per cent of the earth’s surface area is covered by oceans.
A. 20 B. 40 C. 70 D. 90
4. ..... is the world’s biggest country in population
A. China B. India C. Brazil D. Russia
5. Which of the following rivers crosses the Equator twice?
A. Congo B. Tigris C. Nile d. Amazon
6. ........is known as the ‘Land of the Rising Sun’.
A. China B. Korea C. Philippines D. Japan
7. Sky is blue because of the:
A. Blue colour of oceans B. Scattering of blue light by dust particles
C. Scattering of red light by dust particles
D. Reflection of various lights producing blue colour
8. ....... is the capital of Tibet
A. Shanghai B. Gangtok C. Mongph D. Lhasa
9. The equatorial diameter of the earth is:
A. Larger than the polar diameter B. Equal to the polar diameter
C. Samller than the polar diameter D. None of the above
10. The planned city of India is:
A. Varanasi B. Chandigarh C. Hyderabad D. New Delhi
11. The line passing through places which have the same height above sea level is known as:
A. Contour B. Isohyet C. Parallel D. Isobar
12. Where is the origin of the Brahmaputra river?
A. Manasarovar B. Lidav Valley C. Kailash D. Nepal
13. ......is the world’s biggest States.
A. China B. India C. Brazil D. Russia
14. ........ is the world’s highest mountain peak.
A. Mt. Blanc B. Mt. Everest C. Mt Aconcagua D. Mt Kilimanjaro
15. The twin cities of India are:
A. Hyderabad - Secundrabad B. Mysore - Bengaluru
C. Mumbai - Poona D. Delhi - New Delhi
16. Which of the following is not a source of geothermal energy?
A. Coal B. Hot Spring C. Hot Geyser D. Volcano
17. By what name is the Ganga known in Bangladesh?
A. Padma B. Bhagirathi C. Nubra D. Rupnarayan
18. The famous hill station in South India is:
A. Ootacamund B. Trivandrum C. Tiruchirapaili D. Tirupati
19. Oslo is the capital of:
A. Norway B. Denmark C. Belgium D. Switzerland
20. Constellations are:
A. Groups of fixed stars
B. Luminous celestial bodies moving round the sun
C. Lines drawn through places of equal heights above sea level.
D. None of these
Time: 30 minutes Marks: 100
SOCIAL SCIENCE : GEOGRAPHY-NO.2
21. Van Allen belts are:
A. the belts worn by boxers while in the ring
B. zones of high intensity cosmic radiation surrounding the earth
C. belts used by passengers while travelling in an aeroplane to avoid air-pocket jerks
D. None of these
22. Comets are luminous celestial bodies moving round the:
A. Earth B. Sun C. Moon D. None of these
23. Malachite is an ore of:
A. Manganese B. Magnesium C. Copper D. None of these
24. The regions of the Indian sub-continent where rainfall is between 100 cm to 200 cm are
known to be areas having:
A. Scanty rainfall B. Heavy rainfall C. Moderate rainfall D. None of these
25. The busiest of sea trade routes is:
A. Cape of Good Hope route B. Suez Canal C. South Atlantic route
D. North Atlantic route
26. The first newsprint paper mill in India was set up in
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Madhya Pradesh C. Maharashtra D. West Bengal
27. Which state in India touches the boundaries of the largest number of other States?
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Bihar C. Madhya Pradesh D. Uttar Pradesh
28. Which of the following raw materials for the manufacture of paper is used in the largest
quantity?
A. Salai wood B. Sabai grass C. Cotton rags D. Bamboo
29. Which one of the following is not a cash crop?
A. Cotton B. Groundnut C. Sugarcane D. Wheat
30. SaddlePeak, the highest peak in Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is located in
A. North Andaman B. Little Andaman C. Great Nicobar D. Middle Andaman
31. The State of Kerala is conspicuous by the absence of
A. Coal for generation of thermal power
B. High quality clay for manufacture of ceramics
C. Timber for manufacture of plywood
D. Rubber of manufacture of tyres and tubes
32. India is very poorly endowed with a few essential minerals and therefore, depends on other
countries for the supply of a ll of the following minerals, except
A. Antimony B. Cobalt C. Thorium D. Zinc
33. “The State sprawls, over the Western Himalayas and the Karakoram Mountains. It is the
most northerly and mountainous State of India.”. This refers to the State of
A. Assam B. Jammu & Kashmir C. Himachal Pradesh D. Meghalaya
34. The Roaring Forties is / are
A. Westerly winds in the Souther Hemisphere
B. Westerly winds in the Northern Hemisphere
C. One of the major water currents of the Atlantic Ocean
D. The most dangerous river of China
35. Aravalli ranges are an example of
A. Block mountains B. Folded mountains
C. Residual mountains D. Volcanic mountains
36. “ A narrow coastal plain situated at the foot of the hills, run along the coast. It varies in
width from 24 to 96 km and is interrupted by short precipitous spurs projecting from the
Western Ghat towards the Arabian Sea.” The description relates to the State of
A. Karnataka B. Kerala C. Goa D. Gujarat

37. Which one of the following sets of conditions is necessary for good cultivation of wheat?
A. High temperature and heavy rainfall
B. High temperature and moderate rainfall
C. Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall
D. Low temperature and low rainfall
38. Which one of the following has the highest wind-velocity?
A. Hurricane B. Tornado C. Typhoon D. Thunderstorm
39. Cirrus clouds are
A. Low clouds B. Very low clouds
C. High clouds D. Medium height clouds
40. The age of the Earth has been estimated to be about
A. 10,000 million years B. 7,500 million years
C. 4,500 million years D. 3,000 million years
41. Which Union Territory is sandwiched between Gujarat and Maharashta?
A. Diu B. Daman C. Dadra and Nagar Haveli D. Mahe
42. Petrology deals with which of the following?
A. Study of the petroleum products B. Study of petroleum-related market economy
C. Study of rocks in the earth’s crust D. Study of the formation of soils
43. Which one of the following is a Great Circle?
A. The Equator B. The Tropic of Capricorn
C. The Arctic Circle D. The Tropic of Cancer
44. India has fairly adequate reserves of gypsum, nearly half of which are located in
A. Jammu & Kashmir B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Rajasthan D. Tamil Nadu
45. The four States of North-East India, which are reported to have more than 50 percent of
the total area under forests, are
A. Meghalaya, Manipur, Tripura and Nagaland
B. Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura
C. Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
D. Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh
46. The type of soil spread over large areas in the Northern Plains of India is
A. Red soil B. Black soil C. Laterite soil D. Alluvial soil
47. Where exactly is Akasi Chin?
A. Along the Zasker Mountains B. South of Siachen Glacier
C. Near Leh
D. The north-east corner of Jammu and Kashmir
48. Which one of the following areas of India produces the largest quantity of cotton?
A. North-western and western India B. Western and southern India
C. Plains of northern India
D. North-western India and Gangetic West Bengal
49. Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an ecological hot spot?
A. Eastern Himalayas B. Western Ghats and eastern Himalayas
C. Eastern Ghats D. Western Himalayas
50. What is Continental Shelf?
A. Mountain ranges that edge a continent
B. The raised land on a continent’s edge
C. The land that gently slopes and extends below sea-level from the coasts of the continents
before sharply sloping to form the sea floor in the deeps
D. A plateau in the centre of a continent
51. Water vapour, on condensation, is returned to the Earth in the form of
A. Rain and dew only B. Rain, snow and hail only
C. Rain, snow, frost and fog D. Rain, dew, snow, hail, frost and fog
52. What is a Jet Stream?
A. The thrust produced by jet engines of an aircraft
B. The tubes through which fuel is supplied to the engines of an aircraft
C. An invisible river of rushing wind above the clouds streaming round the earth
D. White trail of smoke left behind by an aircraft when flying at high altitude
53. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
A. Delta-Fertility B. Dunes - Rock C. Volcano - Lava D. River-Erosion
54. Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. Soil consists of the upper thin layer of the earth’s crust
B. Requirement of water for all kinds of plants is the same from season to season
C. Decomposed plant and animal remains form humus
D. Transplantation helps better growth of certain plants
55. Two prominent mountain ranges of Madhya Pradesh are
A. Vindhyas and Satpuras B. Mahadeo and Vindhyas
C. Vindhyas and Bhanrer D. Maikala and Kaimur
56. For the cultivation of tobacco, the soil should be rich in
A. Potash B. Calcareous matter
C. Nitrogen D. Organic content
57. What are doldrums?
A. Areas of great humidity B. Areas where the seas are calm
C. The trade winds
D. A low pressure belt round the equator where there are very light winds and calm seas
58. Which one of the following rivers thrice forks into two streams and reunites a few miles
farther on, thus forming the islands of Srirangappattanam, Sivasamudram and Srirangam?
A. Godavari B. Cauvery C. Krishna D. Tungabhadra
59. The Earth turns through 360° in 24 hours. Each 15° longtitude represents
A. Half an hour B. Forty-five minutes
C. One hour D. One hour and fifteen minutes
60. Which of the following terms is not connected with the study of climate?
A. Dew Point B. Flash Point C. Hygrogram D. Stevenson Screen
61. India has the highest productive potential of fisheries in her
A. inland water bodies B. shallow continental shelf
C. deep sea areas D. brackish water lagoons
62. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Diamonds occur in the sediments of Cudapah Series
B. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds
C. Mica occurs in abundance at Kodarma
D. Dharwars are famous for petroleum
63. All the following places get heavy annual rainfall (over 200 cm), except
A. Bangalore B. Mumbai
C. Shillong D. Thiruvananthapuram
64. An Ox-bow lake is a
A. Lake occupying a hollow scooped by a glacier
B. Lake formed due to cut-off meander
C. Lake formed behind an off-shore bar
D. Lake occupying a volcanic crater

65. Which of the following statements regarding the major soil groups is not correct?
A. Laterite is a typical soil of tropical regions which receive heavy seasonal rainfall
B. Red and yellow soils are rich in phosphorus, nitrogen and lime contents
C. Black soil is highly retentive of moisture and very productive
D. Alluvial soils are easy to plough
66. The present forest area of India, according to satellite data is
A. increasing B. decreasing C. static
D. open forest area is decreasing but closed forest area is increasing
67. Which State in India leads in the production of Virgin Tobacco?
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Gujarat C. Madhya Pradesh D. Tamil Nadu
68. Which of the following States of India have a common border with Bhutan?
A. Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, West Bengal and Sikkim
B. Sikkim, Tripura, Mizoram, and Manipur
C. Assam, Meghalaya, West Bengal and Mizoram
D. Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Sikkim and Manipur
69. When was Iron and Steel Industry on a large-scale established in India?
A. 1853 B. 1875 C. 1907 D. 1919
70. Rajasthan remains dry during South-West Monsoon because of the
A. Presence of the Thar Desert B. Spread of sand dunes
C. Lack of vegetation D. Anti-cyclonic circulation
71. When rivers carrying a load enter the sea, their flow gets checked and much of the material
so carried is deposited off shore. Such deposits result in the formation of
A. An atoll B. A delta C. A harbour D. A lake
72. In our country, the south-west monsoon winds blow from
A. January to February B. March to mid-June
C. mid-June to September D. October to December
73. The average salinity of an ocean is
A. 2.0 per cent B. 2.5 per cent C. 3.0 per cent D. 3.5 per cent
74. Willy-willy is
A. a kind of common fish found near Lakshadweep islands
B. a tropical cyclone of north-west Australia
C. a wind that blows in a desert
D. a type of tree grown in temperate regions
75. An estuary is a
A. Broad channel where sea and river waters mingle
B. Natural harbour C. Tropical storm D. Waterfall
76. The most salty sea in the world is
A. Red Sea B. Dead Sea C. Arabian Sea D. Mediterranean Sea
77. South-West Bengal suffers from frequent floods which are caused by
A. poor drainage B. incessant rains
C. obstruction of water by high tidal bores when Hooghly is in flood D. All the above
78. Which of the following are the factors that are mainly responsible for the movements of
surface oceanic currents?
1. Prevailing winds 2. Earth’s rotation 3. Differences in the density of sea water
4. Bottom topography 5. Earthquake activity
A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 3, 4 and 5 C. 2, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2 and 3
79. Which of the following countries is across the Nathu La pass?
A. Burma B. Nepal C. Thailand D. China
80. Which of the following rivers is called ‘Bihar’s Sorrow’?
A. Titash B. Kosi C. Subarnarekha D. Ghaggar
81. Which of the following places is associated with copper mining?
A. Khetri B. Kolar C. Renukoot D. Rourkela
82. Which of the following streams makes the Gersoppa (or Jog) Falls?
A. Netravati B. Kalindi C. Sharavati D. Ulhas
83. The strait which separates Asia from North America is the
A. Bering strait B. Palk Strait C. Strait of Gibraltar D. Strait of Malacca
84. A volcano is a vent or an opening in the earth’s crust through which comes out
A. molten lava, dust and steam and even pieces of rocks
B. molten lava and clouds of gases
C. clouds of gases D. all of the above
85. Solar eclipse takes place when
A. the Moon comes in between the Sun and the Earth
B. the Earth comes in between the Sun and the Moon
C. the Sun comes in between the Moon and the Earth D. None of the above
86. Artesian wells are found in
A. metamorphic rocks B. igneous rocks
C. sedimentary rocks D. None of the above
87. Which of the following navigation canals links up Baltic Sea and North Sea?
A. Kiel Canal B. Panama Canal C. Suez Canal D. None of these
88. Deccan Plateau is primarily made up of
A. basalt B. granite C. limestone D. sandstone
89. Leaching of soil is more pronounced in the area of
A. little or no rainfall B. moderate rainfall
C. heavy rainfall D. rainfall, low or heavy
90. No other part of India receives so heavy a rainfall in winter months as the coastal region of
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Gujarat C. Karnataka D. Tamil Nadu
91. Which of the following hill/s is/are of volcanic origin:
A. Girnar B. Barda Hills C. Osam Hills D. All of the above
92. In the semi-arid and temperate grasslands the most commonly found animals are
A. Camels B. Reindeers C. Horses and Donkeys D. Sheep and Goats
93. Which of the following river basins does not have coal-bearing sediments?
A. Damodar basin B. Gangetic basin C. Godavari basin D. Mahanadi basin
94. Molten rock below the surface of the earth is called
A. lava B. locolith C. magma D. basalt
95. The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to the plane of
A. axis of earth B. north pole C. south pole D. equator
96. The river Brahmaputra is its course of about1,200 km in the upper mountain ranges upto
Namcha Barwa is known by the name of
A. Dhansiri B. Manas C. Tista D. Tsangpo
97. The only state in India that produces saffrom is
A. Assam B. Himachal Pradesh C. Jammu and Kashmir D. Meghalaya
98. The most suitable measure for soil conservation is
A. afforestation B. irrigation C. crop rotation D. contour farming
99. The Indian subcontinent lies
A. wholly in the southern hemisphere B. wholly in the northern hemisphere
C. mostly in the northern hemisphere and partly in the southern hemisphere
D. mostly in the southern hermisphere and partly in the northern hemisphere
100. All of the following are example of sedimentary rocks, except
A. clay B. limestone C. sandstone D. slate

Answers
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. D
9. A 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. A
17. A 18. A 19. A 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. C
25. D 26. B 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. A 32. C
33. B 34. A 35. C 36. B 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. C
41. C 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. D 48. A
49. B 50. C 51. D 52. C 53. B 54. B 55. A 56. A
57. D 58. B 59. C 60. B 61. C 62. C 63. A 64. B
65. B 66. B 67. A 68. A 69. C 70. D 71. B 72. C
73. D 74. B 75. A 76. B 77. D 78. D 79. D 80. B
81. A 82. C 83. A 84. D 85. A 86. C 87. A 88. A
89. C 90. D 91. D 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. D 96. D
97. C 98. A 99. B 100. D

Social Science : Geography 01

1. Which is the longest platform in India?
A. Kolkata B. Mumbai C. Sonepur D. Kharagpur
2. The Arabian Sea and the Persian Gulf are connected by the:
A. Palk Strait B. Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb
C. Hormuz Strait D. Strait of Messina
3. Which is the highest building in the world?
A. Empire Building (New York, USA) B. Eiffel Tower (Pairs, France)
C. Sears Tower (Chicago, USA) D. Burj Khalifa (U.A.E)
4. New York is situated on the river:
A. Hudson B. Seine C. Danube D. Thames
5. The brightest planet is:
A. Saturn B. Venus C. Uranus D. Neptune
6. The largest city founded on the river Ravi is:
A. Luncknow B. Baghdad C. Rome D. Lahore
7. Most populous city of the world is:
A. New York B. Paris C. London D. Tokyo
8. The earth’s rotation does not cause:
A. Tides B. Phases of the moon C. Deflection of ocean currents
D. Difference in time between two meridians
9. The difference between Indian Standard Time and Greenwich Mean Time is:
A. 5 1/2 hours B. 4 1/2 hours C. 5 hours D. 6 hours
10. The smallest planet is :
A. Venus B. Pluto C. Uranus D. Mercury
11. In India the Standard Time is fixed on the basis of standard meridian which passes
through:
A. Dwaraka B. Puri C. Kovalam D. Allahabad
12. Biggest planet is:
A. Mercury B. Pluto C. Jupiter D. Venus
13. The planet nearest to Sun is:
A. Venus B. Mars C. Mercury D. Saturn
14. The largest city (population) in India is:
A. Delhi B. Kolkata C. Mumbai D. Chennai
15. The Sun is:
A. A solid body B. A mass of hot-gases
C. Made of rock and metal D. None of these
Time: 30 minutes Marks: 100
SOCIAL SCIENCE : GEOGRAPHY-NO.1
16. World’s largest producer of Iron Ore is:
A. China B. Russia C. U.K. D. France
17. Which country in the world is having the highest production of wheat?
A. China B. Russia C. Canada D. Australia
18. World’s largest producer of Plastic Goods is:
A. England B. U.S.A C. India D. Pakistan
19. Which country in the world has the largest production of wool?
A. Australia B. New Zealand C. South Africa D. U.S.A.
20. Which is the largest ocean?
A. Atlantic Ocean B. Pacific Ocean C. Indian Ocean D. Arctic Ocean
21. Which is the country in the world having the largest production of coal?
A. U.S.A. B. Canada C. Germany D. Russia
22. Which continent lies to the east of Europe?
A. Africa B. North America C. Asia D. South America
23. The world’s largest desert is:
A. Sahara (North Africa) B. Libyan (North Africa)
C. Gobi (Asia) D. Thar (Rajasthan, India)
24. What is the rank of Africa in size among continents?
A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
25. Which country is having the largest production of cotton in the world?
A. China B. Russia C. Arab countries D. India
26. World’s biggest museum is situated in:
A. Rome B. Mumbai C. New York D. Singapore
27. The world’s largest continent in area is:
A. Asia B. North America C. Africa D. None of these
28. World’s longest river is in:
A. Asia B. Africa C. Europe D. U.S.A
29. How much time earth take to revolve round the Sun?
A. 365 days B. 365 1/4 days C. 365 1/2 days D. 365 3/4 days
30. The biggest auditorium is in:
A. Brazil B. Atlantic City C. New York D. Japan
31. The highest waterfall is:
A. Kerepakupai Meru B. Ribbon
C. King George D. Jog Falls
32. Which of the following is the smallest country (area-wise) in the world?
A. Monaco B. Vatican City C. Malta D. Nauru
33. On which river is Lucknow situated?
A. Ganga B. Jamuna C. Mahanadi D. Gomti
34. The largest delta is:
A. Himalayas B. Sunderbans C. Amazon D. Everest
35. The change of season is due to:
A. Revolution of the earth round its axis B. Revolution of the earth round the sun
C. Revolution of the moon round the earth D. None of these
36. Central Building Research Institute is located at:
A. Roorkee B. Chennai C. Bhavnagar D. Ranchi
37. When it is nine O’clock in London, it will be the same time in?
A. Norway B. Latvia C. Ghana D. Babon
38. Rainbow, an arch in the sky, usually seen after rain, is the result of:
A. Reflection and refraction B. Refraction of light only
C. Reflection of light only
D. Dispersion, refraction and total internal reflection
39. Which State in India is the biggest in population?
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Madhya Pradesh C. Maharashtra D. None of these
40. Which is the longest railway tunnel in the world?
A. Jawahar (Kashmir, India) B. Simpson (Switzerland)
C. Appenine (Italy) D. Godhard (Switzerland)
41. Moscow is situated on the bank of:
A. Tagus B. Spree C. Tigris D. Moskva
42. Equinox means:
A. The longest day of the year B. The longest night of the year
C. The two periods of the year when day and night are equal
D. The coldest day of the year
43. Which of the following States has the largest proportion of area under forests?
A. Madhya Pradesh B. Karnataka
C. Maharashtra D. None of these
44. In which Indian State is Sandal wood grown?
A. Tamil Nadu B. Maharashtra C. Karnataka D. None of these
45. The Planet that lies nearest to Earth orbit of solar system is:
A. Mars B. Venus C. Mercury D. Neptune
46. Which of the following occur more frequently than the other three in the Indian Ocean?
A. Tornadoes B. Typhoons C. Cyclones D. Hurricanes
47. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through:
A. West Bengal B. Rajasthan C. Orissa D. Madhya Pradesh
48. The major Rabi crop in India is:
A. Wheat B. Rice C. Cotton D. Jute
49. World’s largest population is in:
A. Australia B. Asia C. North America D. U.S.A.
50. Which country in the world is having the largest production of Aluminium?
A. Australia B. Canada C. France D. U.K.
51. Blue Mountains are:
A. The Himalayas B. Mount Everest C. The Andes D. Nilgiri
52. ‘Brazil’ is famous for:
A. Tea B. Coffee C. Paper D. Gold
53. Gateway of India is in:
A. Delhi B. Mumbai C. Kolkata D. Agra
54. Which is the country in the world having the largest production of Gold?
A. China B. U.S.A C. France D. India
55. City of Seven Hills is:
A. Rome B. New York C. Paris D. England
56. Land of the Midnights Sun is:
A. New York B. Norway C. Korea D. Rome
57. The ‘Ocean of Storms’ is the name given to.
A. Atlantic Ocean B. Pacific Ocean C. A waterless area of moon’s surface D.
None of these
58. Which of the following is known as the morning star?
A. Mars B. Venus C. Jupiter D. None of these
59. An example of a mineral occurring as layers in Sedimentary rocks is:
A. Gold B. Lead C. Lignite D. Tin
60. Which country is called the playground of Europe?
A. France B. England C. Holand D. Switzerland
61. An example of primary occupation is:
A. Trade B. Weaving C. Mining D. Manufacturing
62. Rocks formed by the solidification of Magma are called:
A. Igneous rocks B. Metamorphic rocks C. Sedimentary rocks D. None of these
63. The International Date Line passes through:
A. The Pacific Ocean B. The Indian Ocean
C. Florida Strait D. Bering Strait
64. Rock salt deposits in India are located in:
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Himachal Pradesh D. Arunachal Pradesh
65. The soils formed by deposition of river sediments are called soils:
A. Alluvial B. Regur C. Brown D. Laterite
66. The clouds which are like a dark-grey sheet extending from one side of horizon to other
and have a uniform base are called:
A. Nimbus Clouds B. Stratus Clouds C. Cumulus Clouds D. Cirrus Clouds
67. The visible yellow face of Sun is called:
A. Ionosphere B. Stratosphere C. Corona D. Photosphere
68. An arm-chair shaped hollow which is enlarged and deepened by a glacier is called:
A. Delta B. Piedmont C. Terminal moraine D. None of these
69. The atmosphere layer closest to earth is called:
A. Stratosphere B. Troposphere C. Photosphere D. Exosphere
70. A line drawn on a map joining places receiving equal amount of rainfall is called:
A. Isohyets B. Isotherms C. Isobars D. None of these
71. The Cyclone represents a position of atmosphere in which:
A. Low pressure in the Centre and high pressure around
B. There is high pressure in the Centre and low pressure around
C. There is low pressure all around
D. None of these
72. If there is no Sun, the colour of the sky would be:
A. Blue B. Yellow C. Orange D. None of these
73. The north end of the axis is called:
A. North pole B. South pole C. Grid north D. None of these
74. .....is the largest producer of Mica?
A. Bihar B. West Bengal C. Orissa C. Andhra Pradesh
75. How does the soil moisture help?
A. In chemical and biological changes B. In keeping earth soft
C. In keeping earth particles intact D. None of these
76. The colour of red soil is red because it contains:
A. Nitrogen B. Potash C. Iron D. Humus
77. The horizontal movement of the air is called:
A. Tides B. Cyclone C. Wind D. Typhone
78. Earth completes one rotation on its axis in:
A. 24 hrs B. 23 hrs and 30 minutes
C. 23 hrs and 56 minutes D. None of these
79. Which of these is not a planet of the Sun?
A. Moon B. Neptune C. Mercury D. Venus
80. The Caspian Sea, the largest inland sea or lake in the world, is in the continent of:
A. Africa B. Asia Europe
D. Between Asia and Europe
81. Hot springs of Volcanic origin and actions are known as:
A. Geysers B. Volcanoes C. Glaciers D. None of these
82. On December 22, the Sun is vertical over:
A. Tropic of Cancer B. Tropic of Capricorn
C. The Equator D. None of these
83. Marble is:
A. Igneous rock B. Sedimentary rock C. Metamorphic rock D. None of these
84. The diameter of the earth is:
A. 6,400 km B. 12,756 km C. 25,000 km D. 40,000 km
85. A stretch of land surrounded by water on three sides is known as:
A. Strait B. Delta C. Peninsula D. None of these
86. A strata of land surrounded by water on all sides is known as a/an:
A. Strait B. Continent C. Island D. Peninsula
87. A huge mass of ice and snow moving down the valley and slopes of mountains till it
melts after passing the snow line is called a/an:
A. Avalanche B. Iceberg C. Glacier D. Typhoon
88. The 66½° north circle is also known as:
A. Tropic of Cancer B. Tropic of Capricorn
C. Zenith D. Arctic circle
89. Humidity refers to:
A. Latent heat B. Brackishness of water
C. Water vapours in air D. Hydroscopic nuclei in the atmosphere
90. ...... is used to keep the correct Greenwich Mean Time:
A. Barometer B. Chronometer
C. Clinometer D. Bruntun’s Compass
91. ...is most commonly found in the earth’s crust:
A. Oxygen B. Silicon C. Hydrogen D. Aluminium
92. Earthquake waves are recorded on a:
A. Barograph B. Hydrograph C. Seismograph D. Pantograph
93. Monsoon climate is caused by:
A. High temperature B. Low temperature
C. Temperature variations D. Seasonal reversal of winds
94. The small bodies between the orbits of Mars and Juptier are:
A. Asteroids B. Superior planets C. Satellites D. Comets
95. The atmospheric layer which reflects radio waves is called:
A. Exosphere B. Stratosphere C. Troposphere D. Ionosphere
96. The place of origin of earthquake is called:
A. Epicentre B. Focus C. Seismic Zone D. None of these
97. India receives most of her rains from:
A. The North-east monsoon B. The retreating South-west monsoon
C. The South-west monsoon D. Tropical cyclones
98. The distance between the Earth and the Sun is greatest during:
A. Winter Solstice B. Summer Solstice C. Perihelion D. Aphelion
99. Condensation occurs:
A. When the air is saturated B. When the moisture content is high
C. When the air is cold D. None of these
100. Humidity in the air is measured by a/an.
A. Hydrometer B. Hygrometer C. Opisometer D. Barometer
Answers
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. D 8. D
9. A 10. D 11. D 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. A
17. A 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B
25. A 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. B 30. B 31. A 32. B
33. D 34. B 35. B 36. A 37. C 38. D 39. A 40. D
41. D 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. A
49. B 50. A 51. D 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. A 56. B
57. C 58. B 59. C 60. D 61. C 62. A 63. D 64. C
65. A 66. A 67. D 68. C 69. B 70. A 71. A 72. D
73. A 74. A 75. A 76. C 77. C 78. C 79. A 80. D
81. A 82. B 83. C 84. B 85. C 86. C 87. C 88. D
89. C 90. B 91. A 92. C 93. D 94. A 95. D 96. A
97. C 98. D 99. C 100. B

General English Solved Paper 02

PART I
Section - A
Q.1-30 Answer all the questions. Each question carries one mark.
1. Whose essay On Myself has been hailed as the perfect example of what a personal essay should be ?
2. Which poem of Dryden was written in celebration of Charles II's Restoration ?
3. How many books are there in Paradise Regained?
4. Who is the hero of Paradise Regained ?
5. The journey in Pilgrim's Progress is undertaken in ––––.
6. Who was the first to call the age of Pope and Johnson as "the Augustan Age" ?
7. Which poetic work of Thomas Gray has been hailed as a mark of transition between the classical School and the
romantic School ?
8. ––– was the famous imaginary old man of Addison's Essays.
9. Besides Marlowe, who else wrote a tragedy by the name Tamerlaine ?
10. The French dramatist who influenced Restoration comedy was ––––
11. Porphyro and Madeline are the lovers in –––
12. The dream poem 'Kubla Khan' was published in –––––
13. Who said that he had a "Smack of Hamlet" in himself ?
14. Apologia Provita Sua is the spiritual autobiography of ––––
15. Who advocated "disinterestedness" in literary criticism ?
16. Pip is a character in ––– written by Dickens.
17. The longest poem in the English language written by Robert Browning is ––––––
18. Name the 20th century poet who translated, the Bhagwad Gita in collaboration with Swami Prabhavanandan.
19. ––– is the protagonist in Osborne's Look Back in Anger.
20. Language which seems smooth, pleasant and musical to the ear is termed as –––––
21. The seven line, iambic pentameter stanza rhyming ababbcc is called ––––
22. In Julius Caesar and in ––– Shakespeare is said to have depicted Romans better than the Roman writers themselves
have done.
23. ––– used the term the 'Theatre of the Absurd'.
24. John Bunyan belongs to ––– Century.
25. The Battle of the Books, discusses the conflict between ––––
26. Hardy's title 'Far from the Madding Crowd' is taken from a poem by ––––
27. According to Aristotle, the least essential part of tragedy is –––
28. When was Johnson's Dictionary published ?
29. Johnson's phrase, "fatal Cleopatra" refers to Shakespeare's ––––
30. Metaphysical conceit is basically ––––
Section - B
Answer all the questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Essays should not exceed two pages.
1. Write a note on Dickens as a social reformer.
2. Renaissance in the history of English literature.
3. What are the salient features of Restoration comedy.
4. "Twentieth Century Poetry is predominantly Pessimistic." Discuss
5. The recent and current tendencies in English language.
6. The trends in modern criticism.
7. Consider 'Andrea Del Sarto' as a dramatic monologue.
8. 'Macbeth' as a Shakespearean tragedy.
9. 'Poetic drama' in the 20th century.
(9×5=45)
PART - II
Section - A
Q. 1-10. Select the correct answer from the four alternatives given. All questions carry one mark
each.
1. ––– report is regarded as the magnacarta of teachers
a) Simon Commission
b) Kothari Commission
c) Macaulay's minutes
d) Hunter Commission
2. The programme of compulsory primary education in India was initiated by
a) Gokhale b) Gandhiji
c) Nehru d) Lord Rippon
3. An objective type test is
a) very easy
b) mind boggling
c) time consuming
d) difficult, needs thorough knowledge
4. In Recall tests
a) memory is tested b) expertise is tested
c) quickness is tested
d) None of these
5. The concept of operant conditioning was developed by
a) Piaget b) Skinner
c) Gardner d) Truman Kelly
6. The causes of backwardness in children are
a) intellectual defects
b) sensory defects
c) temperamental defects
d) All of these
7. Micro teaching was propagated by
a) Dwight W. Allen b) Ned Flanders
c) Skinner d) Keller
8. One can be a good teacher, if he
a) has genuine interest in teaching
b) knows how to enforce discipline
c) knows his subject
d) has good expression
8. A new teacher, to start with will have to
a) enforce discipline in the class.
b) establish rapport with the students.
c) cut jokes with the students.
d) tell the students about his qualifications.
10. The essential role of the teacher in a class room is to
i) give information
ii) motivate students to learn.
iii) develop learning competencies
iv) prepare them for writing examinations.
v) enforce discipline
a) i, ii and iii b) ii, iii & iv
c) iii, iv and v d) i, iv and v
(1×10 =10)
Section - B
Q. 11-13 : Answer all the questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
11. Comment on the present system of examination.
12. Merits and demerits of Trial and Error method.
13. The part played by mother tongue in teaching of English.
(3 × 5 = 15)
(1 × 30 = 30)
ANSWER KEY
Model Exam Paper
Part - I
1. Cowley
2. Astrae Redux
3. 4
4. Christ
5. 10 stages
6. Goldsmith
7. The Elegy
8. Sir Roger De Coverley
9. Nicholas Rowe
10. Moliere
11. The Eve of St. Agnes
12. 1816
13. Coleridge
14. Henry Newman
15. Mathew Arnold
16. Great Expectations
17. The Ring and The Book
18. Christopher Isherwood
19. Jimmy Porter
20. Euphony
21. Rhyme royal
22. Coriolanus
23. Martin Esslin
24. 17th century
25. The Ancients and the Moderns
26. Gray
27. Melody
28. 1755
29. Fondness of Puns
30. a simile
Part-II
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)

General English Solved Paper 01

Fill in the blanks with suitable words:
1. Stars —— in the sky .
(A) twinkled (B) twinkles (C) twinkle (D) twinkling
2. In spite of very tight security , the prisoner —— from the jail .
(A) jumped (B) escaped (C) went (D) ran
3. The minister called ——— the records .
(A) for (B) on (C) at (D) off
4. The workers clamoured ——— higher wages .
(A) with (B) of (C) at (D) for
5. He always clings ——— his ideals .
(A) to (B) on (C) for (D) over
6. I am not concerned ——— the affair .
(A) for (B) with (C) at (D) of
7. I am concerned ———— my son’s affair .
(A) about (B) at (C) of (D) off
8. The prisoner was condemned ——— death .
(A) with (B) to (C) of (D) on
9. You must conform —— the rules of the game .
(A) to (B) about (C) of (D) off
10. Some people cry ——— democracy .
(A) down (B) of (C) to (D) for
11. I have dispensed ——— the services of that typist .
(A) with (B) for (C) to (D) at
12. The table is made ——— wood .
(A) of (B) from (C) for (D) with
Time: 20 minutes Marks: 40
Practice Test - General English - 15
13. Raju is not free on the 27 th, we will have to find an ———— date.
(A) alternative (B) alternate (C) alter (D) none of these
14. He daren’t face the enemy, ————?
(A) do he (B) dare he (C) don’t he (D) daren’t he
15. We need work hard, ———— ?
(A) needn’t we (B) don’t we (C) do we (D) need we
16. He ought to go now ——?
(A)ought he (B)oughtn’t he (C)oughtn’t to he (D)didn’t he
17. We needn’t wait long ——— ?
(A) do we (B) did we (C) need we (D) needn’t we
18. We don’t work hard ———— ?
(A)does we (B) do we (C) didn’t we (D) did we
19. There ——— a dozen eggs in that basket.
(A) was (B) is (C) are (D) has
20. There ——— a pair of trousers in the wardrobe.
(A) were (B) was (C) have been (D) are
21. ———— there many guests at the wedding?
(A) Was (B) Were (C) Has (D) has been
22. This is the first time I ——— here.
(A) am (B) was (C) have been (D) has been
23. I have told you all ——— I knew.
(A) what (B) that (C) which (D) none of these
24. I am taking an umbrella in case it ———.
(A) has rained (B) rained (C) rains (D) rain
25. You had better ——— a doctor.
(A) to see (B) seeing (C) saw (D) see
26. It ———— rain this morning.
(A) can (B) is (C) was (D) could
27. He has ——— money.
(A) much (B) a lot of (C) a few (D) few
28. I looked at ———— in the mirror.
(A) me (B) myself (C) I (D) none of these
29. The winter is bound to be harsh; it is ———— necessary to save fuel.
(A) not (B) not at all (C) all the more (D) all the same
30. Everyone in my class ———— to learn computer programming.
(A) wish (B) wishing (C) wishes (D) have wished
31. Computer literacy is just a skill like ——— other.
(A) some (B) all (C) any (D) few
32. The elections are fast approaching, and it is time we set the ball ————.
(A) to roll (B) moving (C) rolling (D) playing
33. Work hard lest you ————.
(A) should fail in the test (B) will fail in the test (C) may fail in the test (D) failing in the test
34. ———— hay while the sun shines.
(A) Wash (B) Burn (C) Make (D) Pluck
ANSWERS
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. B
15. A 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. B 21. B
22. C 23. B 24. C 25. D 26. D 27. B 28. B
29. C 30. C 31. C 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. B
36. C 37. C 38. B 39. B 40. C
Spot the Error:
35. (A) Trees / (B) drop its / (C) leaves in autumn. / (D) no error
36. (A) I / (B) don’ t / (C) know nothing . / (D) no error
37. (A) We intend / (B) to stay here / (C) a farther two weeks . / (D) no error
38. (A) Please don’ t / (B) mention about / (C) the incident again . / (D) no error
39. (A) She / (B) told to me / (C) to read it . / (D) no error
40. (A) The person / (B) who is standing / (C) besides the door is my brother . / (D) no error

RRB KOLKATA Ticket Collector solved Paper

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RRB Bhopal Ticket Collector Solved Paper

1. The main sources about the Indus Valley civilization are :
(1) Inscriptions
(2) Coins
(3) Manuscripts on leaves of palm and birch
(4) Archaeological excavations


2. The propounder of Yoga School of Philosophy was
(1) Patanjali (2) Gautam
(3) Jaimini (4) Shankaracharya


3. The term ‘Double Fault’ is related to the game of
(1) Badminton (2) Golf
(3) Tennis (4) Cricket


4. Which of the following pairs of names are related?
(1) Golf- Polo (2) Soccer- Football
(3) Billiards- Snookers (4) Volleyball- Football


5. Which of the following pairs is the highest peak of India?
(1) Kanchanjungha (2) Nanda Devi
(3) Mount Everest (4) Kamet


6. After how many years elections are held to elect the members of Rajya Sabha?
(1) 6 years (2) 2 years
(3) 3 years (4) 4 years


7. Which of the following is the longest river in India?
(1) Ganga (2) Brahmaputra
(3) Yamuna (4) Godavari


8. Which of the following vitamins is obtained from sunlight?
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin C
(3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin B


9. How many bones are there in the human body?
(1) 206 (2) 202
(3) 204 (4) 203


10. Which of the following is the longest river in the world?
(1) Amazon (2) Nile
(3) Mississippi (4) Danube


11. Silk is mostly obtained from
(1) Ujjain (2) Koshambi
(3) Taxila (4) Varanasi


12. Who among the following is associated with the Sarnath Inscription ?
(1) Ashoka (2) Harshavardhana
(3) Chandra Gupta Maurya (4) Samundra Gupta


13. Which of the following names of play ground is correct?
(1) Ring – Skating (2) Diamond – Cricket
(3) Field – Cycling (4) Bull – Tennis


14. Who among the following is competent to amend the provisions of citizenship?
(1) Parliament (2) President
(3) Prime Minister (4) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court


15. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the President?
(1) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(2) Prime Minister
(3) Vice President
(4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha


16. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the Chief Justice of a High Court?
(1) Governor
(2) President
(3) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(4) Council of Ministers


17. Railway in included in which of the following lists?
(1) Union list (2) State list
(3) Concurrent list (4) None of these


18. Who among the following was the first and last woman ruler of Delhi?
(1) Razia Beghum (2) Chand Bibi
(3) Mumtaz (4) Karnavati


19. Who among the following was the first to land on moon?
(1) Neil Armstrong (2) Tenzing Norgay
(3) Rakesh Sharma (4) Edwin Aldrin


20. Who among the following was the first Indian woman to scale the Mount Everest?
(1) Bachendri Pal (2) Santosh Yadav
(3) Dicky Dolma (4) None of these


21. Zero hour is the period
(1) just after question hour in both Houses of Parliament
(2) at the starting of the sitting
(3) at the end of sitting
(4) None of these


22. The maximum interval between the two sessions of the Houses is
(1) Six months (2) 3 months
(3) 2 months (4) one year


23. The period of proclamation of emergency is
(1) one month (2) two months
(3) six months (4) one year


24. The Chief Minister who remained in the office for the longest period :
(1) Jyoti Basu (2) Lalu Prasad
(3) Mayawati (4) M. Karunanidhi


25. The Salarjung Museum is located in
(1) Hyderabad (2) Bhopal
(3) Patna (4) Ranchi


26. Which of the following gases is filled in a balloon?
(1) Helium (2) Hydrogen
(3) Bromine (4) Oxygen


27. Which of the following is called Banker’s Bank?
(1) Reserve Bank of India (2) State Bank of India
(3) Punjab National Bank (4) None of these


28. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (2) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Sachchidanand Sinha


29. Which of the following is the longest platform in the world?
(1) Kharagpur (2) Kolkata
(3) Leningrad (4) Tokyo


30. Who among the following built the Grand Trunk road?
(1) Shershah (2) Akbar
(3) Humayun (4) Shahjehan


31. Focus on the age eye is adjusted through
(1) Retina (2) Iris
(3) Comea (4) Lens


32. Who among the following was the ruler of Kalinga?
(1) Kharvela (2) Ashoka
(3) Samudragupta (4) None of these


33. Maximum oil can be extracted from
(1) Sunflower (2) Groundnut
(3) Mustard (4) Cardamom


34. The most suitable conductor is
(1) Saline water (2) Fresh water
(3) Pure water (4) None of these


35. The mausoleum of which saint is located in Ajmer?
(1) Moinuddin Chisti (2) Badruddin Zacharia
(3) Khwaja Walliullah (4) Abdul Shatari


36. Gobar gas mainly contains
(1) Methane (2) Ethane
(3) Propane (4) Butane


37. Who among the following invented the decimal system?
(1) Aryabhatt (2) Copernicus
(3) Magellan (4) Charak


38. Nose starts bleeding when one climbs up mountain due to
(1) low pressure (2) high pressure
(3) height (4) None of these


39. In which of the following sectors maximum number of women are employed?
(1) Tea (2) Agriculture
(3) Jute (4) Textile


40. Railway earns maximum revenue from
(1) freight charges (2) passenger fares
(3) advertisement (4) None of these


41. Which of the following is called the laughing gas?
(1) Nitrogen Oxide (2) Hydrogen Oxide
(3) Nitrous Oxide (4) Sulphur Oxide


42. Who was the first Indian to qualify for Olympics?
(1) Shiny Abraham (2) PT Usha
(3) Karmam Malleshwari (4) Jyotirmony Sikdar


43. During Shivaji’s childhood, who among the following exercised the maximum influence on his character?
(I) Jija Bai, his mother (II) Dadaji Kondadev, his tutor
(III) Shahji Bhonsle, his father
(1) I Only (2) I and III
(3) I, II and III (4) I and II


44. ‘Black Hole Episode’ was the main cause of :
(1) Battle of Buxar (2) Battle of Plassey
(3) Battle of Wandiwash (4) Battle of Haldighati


45. Who is known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(1) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Kan (2) C. Rajgopalachari
(3) Lala Lajpat Rai (4) Dadabhai Naoroji


46. The slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ was first raised by :
(1) Lokmanya Tilak (2) Veer Savarkar
(3) Chandrashekhar Azad (4) Bhagat Singh


47. Which of the following is/ are true about Sarojini Naidu?
(a) She was the First Woman President of the Congress
(b) She was the first Woman Governor in independent India
(c) She was the first Health Minister in independent India
(d) She wrote the famous ‘Golden Bough’

(1) a, b and d (2) a and c
(3) a and b (4) Only b


48. Which planet looks reddish in the night sky?
(1) Mercury (2) Mars
(3) Jupiter (4) Saturn


49. Geostationary orbit is at a height of :
(1) 6 km (2) 1000 km
(3) 3600 km (4) 36,000 km


50. The ozone layer in the upper part of the atmosphere protects us from :
(1) Cosmic rays (2) Ultrasonic waves
(3) Infra- red rays (4) Ultraviolet rays


51. Nights are cooler in the deserts than in the plains because :
(1) sand radiates that more quickly than the earth
(2) the sky remains clear most of the time
(3) sand absorbs heat more quickly than the earth
(4) None of these


52. Which of the following is the highest plateau in the world?
(1) Colorado Plateau (2) Pamir Plateau
(3) Patagonia Plateau (4) Potwar Plateau


53. Pointing towards a woman Manju said that ‘She is the sister of father of son of my mother’. How is that woman related to woman?
(1) Aunt (2) Sister
(3) Niece (4) None of these
54. Tipu Sultan was the ruler of
(1) Hyderabad (2) Madurai
(3) Mysore (4) Vijayanagar


55. Which of the following passes through India?
(1) Tropic of Cancer (2) Tropic of Capricorn
(2) Prime Meridian (4) Equator

ANSWER

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1)
6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (1)
26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1) 29. (1) 30. (1)
31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (1)
41. (3) 42. (2) 43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (4)
46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4) 50. (4)
51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (1)

Civils Preliminary 2011 - General Studies - Paper I


1. In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material?
1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bioasphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials
4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Consider the following:
1. Carbon dioxide 2. Oxides of Nitrogen 3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emis-sion/emissions from coal combust-ion at thermal power plants?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3
3. Satellites used for telecommunicati-on relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:
1. The orbit is geosynchronous
2. The orbit is circular
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth's equator
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons?
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultiv-ation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by
about 30%
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patte-rns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
5. At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequence on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease resistant animal breeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
6. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to
a) Export b) Import
c) Production d) Consumption
7. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?
1. They use living organisms as catalyst to generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the "fiscal stimulus"?
a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth
b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country
c) It is Government's intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production
and contain food inflation
d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion.
9. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?
a) Presence of prominent troposp-heric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
c) Absence of polar front and strato-spheric clouds; and inflow of me-thane and chlorofluorocarbons
d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming
10. Consider the following actions which the Government can take:
1. Devaluing the domestic currency
2. Reduction in the export subsidy
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs
Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 3 only d) 1 and 3
11. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the
following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
12. Two important rivers - one with its source in Jharkand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and anoth-er, with its source in Odisha - merge at a place only a
short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flo-wing into the sea. This is an impo-rtant site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one
of the following could be this?
a) Bhitarkanika b) Chandipur-on-sea c) Gopalpur-on-sea d) Simlipal
13. A rapid increase in the rate of infla-tion is sometimes attributed to the ''base effect''. What is ''base effect"?
a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops
b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth
c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calc-ulation of inflation rate
d) None of the statement(a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
14. India is regarded as a country with "Demographic Dividend". This is due to
a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years
b) Its high population in the age group of 15 - 64 years
c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years
d) Its high total population
15. Regarding "carbon credits", which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota
c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme
16. Which one of the following is not a feature of "Value Added Tax"?
a) It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation
b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain
c) It is a tax on the final consum-ption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer
d) It is basically a subject of the Central Government and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation
17. A "closed economy" is an economy in which
a) the money supply is fully controlled
b) deficit financing takes place
c) only exports take place
d) neither exports nor imports take place
18. When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because
a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts
b) Roots are starved of energy
c) Tree is infected by soil microbes
d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration
19. The "New START" treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?
a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation
b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit
c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for the energy security cooperation
d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countr-ies for the promotion of trade
20. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density 3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
a) 1, 2 and 6 b) 2, 4 and 6 c) 1, 3 and 5 d) 3, 4 and 6
21. Human activities in the recent past have caused the increased concentra-tion of carbon dioxide in the atmo-sphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower
atmosphere because of
1. its escape into the outer stratosphere
2. the photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans
3. the trapping of air in the polar ice caps
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only
22. In the context of ecosystem producti-vity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the
1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface
2. nutrients to the surface
3. bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only
23. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because
a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
c) the rain forest species are slow growing
d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest
24. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?
a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
b) It is a confluence of different bio geographical zones
c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region
d) It has less human interference
25. With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:
1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral Develo-pment (Regulation) Act, 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Which of the above Acts have releva-nce to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 d) None of the above Acts
26. Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?
a) Empirical liberalism b) Existentialism
c) Darwin's theory of evolution d) Dialectical materialism
27. A layer in the Earth's atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communications. why?
1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Inve-stor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the followi-ng statements best
represents an imp-ortant difference between the two?
a) FII helps bring better manage-ment skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors
c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, While FII targets primary market
d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI
29. A genetically engineered form of bri-njal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has be-en developed. The objective of this is
a) To make it pest-resistant
b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
c) To make it drought-resistant
d) To make its shelf-life longer
30. With reference to "Aam Admi Bima Yojana", consider the following statement:
1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless house hold.
2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
31. In the context of global oil prices, "Brent crude oil" is frequently referr-ed to in the news. What does this term imply?
1. It is a major classification of crude oil
2. It is sourced from North Sea
3. It does not contain sulphur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
32. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
a) Slow down the speed of neutrons b) Increase the speed of neutrons
c) Cool down the reactor d) Stop the nuclear reaction
33. In India, if a religious sect/comm-unity is given the status of a national minority, What special advantages it is entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions
2. The President of India automa-tically nominates a representative of the community to Lak Sabha
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister's 15-Point Prog-ramme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
34. India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law?
1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
35. With what purpose is the Govern-ment of India promoting the concept of "Mega Food Parks"?
1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage
3. To provide emerging and eco friendly food processing technol-ogies to entrepreneurs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
36. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
a) The President of India b) The Parliament of India c) The Prime Minister of India d) The Union Finance Minister
37. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
a) Contingency Fund of India b) Public Account
c) Consolidated Fund of India d) Deposits and Advances Fund
38. Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-emplo-yed. The service/services
rendered under micro finance is/are:
1. Credit facilities 2.Saving facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 4 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
39. Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most
convincing explanation for this global perspective?
a) It was the hot theatre during the Second World War
b) Its location between the Asian powers of China and India
c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War Period
d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian Oceans and its Pre-eminent maritime character
40. A company marketing food products advertise that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?
1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
41. Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the "Maha-tma Gandhi National Rural Emplo-yment Guarantee Act"?
a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
d) Adult members of any household
42. With reference to "Look East Policy" of India, consider the following state-ments:
1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold war
3. India wants to restore the histor-ical and cultural ties with its neig-hbours in southeast and East Asia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
43. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha.
a) the Budget is modified and presented again
b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
c) the Union Finance Minster is asked to resign
d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
44. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
a) To vote in public elections
b) To develop the scientific temper
c) To safeguard public property
d) To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals
45. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?
a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
b) It facilitates the proper distrib-ution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
46. Consider the following:
1. Right to education
2. Right to equal access to public service
3. Right to food
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights Under. "Univer-sal Declaration of Human Rights"?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
47. There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phen-omenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
a) 1only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
48. Consider the following:
1. Photosynthesis 2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?
a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
49. Recently, the USA decided to support India's membership in multi-lateral export control regimes called the "Australia Group" and the "Wasse-naar Arrangement".
What is the difference between them?
1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons
proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.
2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, Whereas the member countries of Wassenaar Arrangement are
pre-dominantly from the European Union and American Continents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?
a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C
d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
51. Asandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction
of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?
a) Indian wild buffalo
b) Indian wild ass c) Indian wild boar
d) Indian gazelle
52. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino?
1. La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean wher-eas El Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in the
equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
53. The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally
traced to which of the following provisions?
a) Making Zamindar's position stronger vis-a-vis the ryot
b) Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars
c) Making judicial system more efficient
d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above
54. Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?
a) It was a non-violent movement
b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
c) It was a spontaneous movement
d) It did not attract the labour class in general
55. Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th Century?
a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation of tribal products
b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas
c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue far-mers as middlemen in tribal areas
d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities
56. India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of
Ben-gal, which of the following could be the most convincing explanation/ explanations?
a) As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times
b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, brahmin priests and buddhist monks in this context
c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages
d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this context
57. What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?
a) Bluetooth uses 2-4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2-4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band
b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only
c) When information is transmitted between two devices using Bluetooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi
technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of
each other
d) The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context
58. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming
3. In some areas of farming, rece-ding of ground water table can be checked.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
59. With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, "Home Charges" formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds
constituted "Home Charges"?
1. Funds used to support the India office in London
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
60. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of Kheda?
1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collec-tion is spite of a drought
2. The Administration proposed to introduce permanent settlement in Gujarat
Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Biodiversity forms the basis for hum-an existence in the following ways:
1. Soil formation 2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste 4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given below;
a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
62. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie
sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?
a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
b) When aspartame is used in food processing the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation
c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories
d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation
63. What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W.S. Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
c) To facilitate a discussion on Ind-ia's Independence in the British Parliament
d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament
64. What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semi-conductor material
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2, and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
65. Recently, "oilzapper" was in the news. What is it?
a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
b) It is the latest technology develo-ped for under sea oil exploration
c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells
66. A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood
group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is
a) O positive b) A positive c) B positive d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data
67. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were refle-cted in a book titled, "Unto this Last" and the book transformed his life. What was the message
from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?
a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man
b) The good of individual is contained in the good of all
c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life
d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context
68. With reference to Indian freedom strug-gle, Usha Mehta is well-known for
a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
b) Participating in the Second Rou-nd Table Conference
c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
69. A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?
1. DVD supports Standard Defin-ition video while BD supports High Definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while
that of DVd is 1.2 mm
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
70. With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?
1. Complete Independence for India
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
71. Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minim-um cost of production,
and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Arunachala Pradesh c) Madhya Pradesh d) Uttar Pradesh
72. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conser-vation of flora?
a) Biosphere Reserve b) Botanical Garden c) National Park d) Wildlife Sanctuary
73. Consider the following statements:
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
1. is constituted under the prov-isions of the Constitution of India
2. Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area
3. has the sole responsibility for im-plementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
74. What is the difference between "vote-on-account" and ''interim budget"?
1. The provision of a ''vote-on-account' is used by a regular Government, while an ''interim budget'' is a provision used by a caretaker Government
2. A ''vote-on-account'' only deals with the expenditure in Govern-ment's budget, while an ''interim budget'' includes both expen-diture and receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Regarding the International Monet-ary Fund, which one of the following statements is correct?
a) It can grant loans to any country
b) It can grant loans to only developed countries
c) It grants loans to only member countries
d) It can grant loans to the central bank of country
76. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?
a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which peo-ple neither live nor venture out
b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster
c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an
excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots
77. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by
a) Universal Law b) Universal Truth c) Universal Faith d) Universal Soul
78. Salinization occurs when the irrig-ation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the
irrigated land?
a) It greatly increase the crop production
b) It makes some soils impermeable
c) It raises the water table
d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
79. The "Red Data Books" published by the International Union for Conser-vation of Nature and Natural Reso-urces (IUCN) contain lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 and 3 b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only
80. Why is the offering of "teaser loans" by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manuf-acturing or export units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
81. An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth
a) does not exist at such distance
b) is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
d) provides the necessary accel-eration for its motion
82. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?
a) Commercial Banks
b) Cooperative Banks
c) Regional Rural Banks
d) Microfinance Institutions
84. Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government's objec-tive of inclusive growth?
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
85. Why is the Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)?
1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
86. What is the difference between asteroids and comets?
1. Asteroids are small rocky plane-toids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mos-tly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glow-ing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
87. Economic growth is usually coupled with
a) Deflation b) Inflation
c) Stagflation d) Hyperinflation
88. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to
a) More liquidity in the market
b) Less liquidity in the market
c) No change in the liquidity in the market
d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks
89. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?
1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?
1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
91. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since the are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain
health and promote longevity?
a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency
b) The prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and prote-ins in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy
c) The neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism
d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process
92. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilizati-on, consider the following statements:
1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
93. The lower Gangetic plain is charac-terized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Whi-ch one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for
this region?
a) Paddy and cotton b) Wheat and Jute c) Paddy and Jute d) Wheat and cotton
94. What could be the main reason/ reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
96. Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Me-kong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reac-hes. Of these rivers,
Brahmaputra makes a "U" turn in its course to flow into India. This "U" turn is due to
a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
d) Both (a) and (b) above
98. A state in India has the following characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semiarid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Gujarat c) Karnataka d) Tamil Nadu
99. What is "Virtual Private Network"?
a) It is private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization
b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization's network while maintaining the security of the information
transmitted
c) It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider
d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is a correct description of Virtual Private Network
100.The "dharma" and "rita" depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civiliza-tion of India. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one's duties to oneself and to others.
2.) Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2                                                www.sakshieducation.com